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June 25, 2009

Private sector forecasts at variance

Economic forecasts are notoriously inaccurate. That isn't a statement about the ability of forecasters, but rather a statement about the complexity of the economy. If you're looking for a humbling experience, I recommend you give it a try.

And today's economy would seem to be an exceptionally difficult environment in which to forecast. As economists peer into the future, there seems to be an unusually wide range of opinion about what to expect. Uncertainty is running pretty high right now in the minds of the top prognosticators.

Consider the following predictions from the Blue Chip panel of economists concerning the economy's growth rate a year and a half from now (fourth quarter 2010). The average growth rate expected in that time frame from the panel is 3 percent, which isn't that different from the six-quarter-ahead forecast they have made every June during the past 10 years or so. But if you compare the difference between the economic optimists (the 10 highest growth forecasts) relative to the economic pessimists (the 10 lowest growth forecasts), the discrepancy between the two views is large relative to recent history. In short, the forecasts on the optimistic end of the spectrum are now more optimistic while the pessimistic forecasts are a little more pessimistic.

062409a

Uncertainty over the medium-term outlook is particularly large regarding the experts' views on inflation. In the latest survey of the Blue Chip panel, the difference between the 10 highest and the 10 lowest inflation predictions for the fourth quarter of 2010 was a gaping 3.7 percentage points (compared with an average of about 1.5 percentage points over the past decade and a half). This wide range of opinions about inflation prospects started to emerge last year as economic conditions deteriorated.

062409b

Disharmony in the panel's inflation outlook doesn't so much suggest that those expecting inflation now see greater inflationary risks—at 3.2 percent the medium-term inflation prediction of the highest 10 inflation forecasts isn't materially different from where it has been since the late 1990s. Instead, the larger variance in the inflation outlook is coming from those at the bottom of the panel's forecast distribution that are anticipating even more downward price pressure than in previous years.

Pinpointing the future trajectory of the economy is generally considered more difficult near turning points in the business cycle—though the current uncertainty would appear to be particularly large, recession or not. Such uncertainty about the future is surely adding to the challenges facing the business community as it strives to get back on its feet.

By Laurel Graefe, economic research analyst at the Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta

June 25, 2009 in Forecasts, Inflation | Permalink

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"Pinpointing the future trajectory of the economy is generally considered more difficult near turning points in the business cycle—though the current uncertainty would appear to be particularly large, recession or not. Such uncertainty about the future is surely adding to the challenges facing the business community as it strives to get back on its feet."

Reading this paragraph made me sigh. I remembered a conversation with Bob Eggert Sr. back in 1988 about why I was interested in studying economics. I was grilling Bob about the lack of concensus during the mid-80s at the critical point of inflection getting us clear of the last economic crisis. He replied that the concensus works best when conditions remain stable for a period of time- long enough for enough of the participants in the study to have some *confidence* in the outlook. At that point I asked him about studying the inflection points and he said that is really the study of political economy, and not true economics.

These divergences occur when paradigms shift. Bob is gone, but I see that clearly now.

Good luck young lady, and may you find a place to use your abilities.

Someday this war's gonna end...

Posted by: AllenM | June 25, 2009 at 03:13 PM

"That isn't a statement about the ability of forecasters, but rather a statement about the complexity of the economy. If you're looking for a humbling experience, I recommend you give it a try"

Just because the rest of the world can't doesn't certify that it's hard.

I figured it out in July 79. It is mathematically impossible to miss an economic forecast (at least out to one year).

Posted by: flow5 | June 26, 2009 at 02:37 PM

In spite of all complains about the unpredictability of macroeconomic variables, they can be actually accurately predicted. Unemployment rate in Italy is predicted for the period between 1974 and 2007 with an uncertainty (RMS) of 0.5% at a nine(9!)-year horizon. Essentially, we know now what will be in 2015:
http://seekingalpha.com/instablog/434499-ivan-kitov/10544-unemployment-in-italy-will-reach-11-in-2012

Posted by: Ivan Kitov | June 30, 2009 at 08:00 AM

Just a correction. The paper with the prediction of Italian unemployment is published by the Euro Area Business Cycle Network: http://www.eabcn.org/members-research-papers

Posted by: Ivan Kitov | June 30, 2009 at 08:22 AM

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June 18, 2009

CPI: The left and the right of it

Updated 11:30 a.m.

We got a good reading of May's inflation numbers this week. On both the producer and the consumer sides, price measures for the month came in well short of market expectations. The prospect of deflation has been getting a good deal of coverage in the blogosphere; see Andy Harless' blog, Economist's View, and Paul Krugman's column.

Greg Mankiw, however, points out that a trimmed mean estimate of the consumer price index (CPI), which removes the large relative price changes in each month, makes the deflation story seem a bit, uh, exaggerated.

"As every grade school student learns when the teacher reports results of the latest test, the average of any data set can be thrown off by a few extreme outliers; the median is a more robust statistic to estimate the central tendency in the data.

"Right now, the two measures of inflation are diverging substantially. The standard CPI shows deflation over the past year, but that average is due to a few anomalous sectors, such as energy. If you look at the median CPI, which shows what a more typical price is doing, the inflation rate does not look very unusual."

While the median is certainly a valuable way to look at inflation, there is also some interesting information that can be gleaned from breaking down the whole distribution of prices.

The chart below (hat tip to Brent Meyer at the Cleveland Fed) shows another interesting feature of yesterday's CPI release. Notice the clear downward shift in the distribution of CPI component price changes. Over half of the prices within the CPI market basket posted growth at or below 1 percent last month, up from an average of 29 percent in 2008, with a whopping one-third of the price index posting declines in May.

061809

Of course, one month does not a trend make, but the month's price numbers were nonetheless noteworthy.

By Laurel Graefe, economic research analyst at the Atlanta Fed

June 18, 2009 in Inflation | Permalink

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The median approach would be correct and helpful only in the case when all components of the CPI were random realizations of some stochastic process. Then, for short time series, the median provides a robust estimate of the distribution parameters. In the case when all prices in the CPI are inter-related and the total (amount of money, i.e. all prices times all quantities) in constrained, the median value just suppresses valuable information about the inherent interaction. The evolution of a weighted mean value is superior in presenting real processes.

Posted by: Ivan Kitov | June 19, 2009 at 09:47 AM

Neither trimmed-mean nor median CPI statistics have any physical meaning. Energy cost is increasing now just like last summer - and that needs to be reflected substantially within the CPI, not zeroed out. The CPI must reflect everything actually spent by a citizen, including both energy cost and home mortgage price (not OER). Yes, the CPI can be thrown off by wild swings in any one component - similarly, overall consumer habits will be vastly altered by wild price increases in any one component of CPI. I don't have the capacity to whimsically choose to not spend any money tomorrow on energy - dwelling electric and car fuel bills are essentials.

The reason the US is/was the economic center of the world is the transparency and reliability of our data. It's time to return to basic principles.

Posted by: Unsympathetic | June 19, 2009 at 04:07 PM

Mankiw's test score example is inappropriate. The effect of the mean-trimmed approach described is more analagous to dropping the Math grade when calculating a student's overall GPA.

Also, this problem is compounded when component values of the index are related to each other in a lagging manner. For example, a large decrease in owner equivalent rent may cause a large decrease in other price components in subsequent months; while OER may be trimmed one month, other components will be trimmed subsequently and the overall price decrease may never show up in the mean-trimmed or median index.

The mean-trimmed and median approaches are more appropriately applied to the raw data used to calculate the component values. For instance, if one family reported that the price of bread had doubled in one month, this would be a true outlier and deleting it would likely yield better reults.

Posted by: Paul | June 20, 2009 at 08:13 PM

I forgot to mention, I *do* think that the change distribution chart is a helpful way of looking at things, particularly if OER is broken up into 4 components to better even out the weightings as suggested by the Cleveland FED. Considering the large number of components declining, I suggest adding "-1 to 0", "-2 to -1", and "< -2" columns to the chart.

Posted by: Paul | June 20, 2009 at 08:22 PM

Commenter Unsympathetic argues that consumers do not have the option to cut spending on energy because they are essentials, and therefore one should not set aside energy prices when looking at the CPI. The experience in 2007 - 2008 doesn't support this view. Oil prices spiked, and consumers reduced demand, and then oil prices fell. The recent experience of Juneau Alaska a few years ago is also relevant. They lost something like 30% of their electricity supply overnight (avalanche took out a transmission line) and consumer electricity rates spiked because of the expense of providing power using standby generators. Consumers very quickly changed their habits and substantially reduced their electricity consumption (I forget the percentage but it was something like 20-40%). The point being that energy price shocks do get blunted by consumers reducing demand, and I think this effect would be magnified in our current recessionary environment, so I think it is appropriate to set aside energy prices when looking for trends in the CPI.

Posted by: AndyfromTucson | June 21, 2009 at 07:20 AM

It WOULD BE noteworthy if some Economist somewhere demonstrated enough concern for her chosen field of study to argue the societal benefits from correlating inflationary measurements to a population sampling - any sampling. Have FED Economists learned nothing from the unmasking of mpt?

Posted by: bailey | June 22, 2009 at 06:31 PM

There isn't much more room to expand the money supply without increasing inflation (for the entire year).

However c. Aug-Sept real-gdp will begin dropping again. I.e., stagflation (business stagnation accompanied by inflation) will overtake the landscape.

Posted by: flow5 | June 23, 2009 at 11:15 AM

the data for 1966 is absolutely clear proof

Posted by: flow5 | June 26, 2009 at 03:13 PM

CPI is traditionally one of the most volatile numbers to watch.

I think you need to look at other factors to see if we are in a deflationary cycle or inflationary one. CPI on a stand alone basis is not clear enough.

The savings rate of the US has gone up. This is clearly deflationary.
Home values are still declining. This is deflationary. Unemployment continues to rise, deflationary.

On the other hand, fiscal policy is certainly inflationary, and Fed policy is inflationary. Fed policy will have more to do with inflation than fiscal in the long run.

I think that velocity of money has slowed to the point where it will take significantly longer for Fed policy to make things happen. Credit markets still are not functioning at optimum.

There is a lot of fear in the marketplace, and this keeps inflation in check, for now.

Posted by: Jeff | June 27, 2009 at 10:47 AM


What I think the inflation measures should reflect:

(a) accurate calibration of sums, because effect of inflation is important in accumulation, so that change of long term measurements is the appropriate accumulation of short term measurements.

But it is also the case that certain sectors have significantly more variance month to month than others; and this difference in variance persists.

(b) So the inflation estimate ought to have lower variance, which is what the trimmed mean attempts to do in an unsatisfactory way.

To me (I'm a physicist with experience in signal processing and machine learning) the appropriate response then is to have different time-scales for averaging (slower for high variance vs faster for low variance) for the different sectors, then generate the composite statistic and report changes of this.

Also, the inflation statistic would be more publically honest if economists et al used one which does include food & energy instead of the "core inflation" BS---which induces contempt by the public.

I might suggest Kalman filters of the deflator for each sector with varying smoothing parameters. Lots of smoothing for food and energy, less smoothing for other things. But importantly there should be no long-term growing mismatch between smoothed and raw deflators for any sector. This is because food and energy are truly important components of people's expenses and accumulation of changes are critical for actual inflation and perceptions of it.

Posted by: Matthew Kennel | July 03, 2009 at 12:18 AM

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June 11, 2009

Price stability and the monetary base

Arthur Laffer, as several readers (and friends) have pointed out to me, is taking aim at the Fed:

"… as bad as the fiscal picture is, panic-driven monetary policies portend to have even more dire consequences. We can expect rapidly rising prices and much, much higher interest rates over the next four or five years, and a concomitant deleterious impact on output and employment not unlike the late 1970s.

"About eight months ago, starting in early September 2008, the Bernanke Fed did an abrupt about-face and radically increased the monetary base—which is comprised of currency in circulation, member bank reserves held at the Fed, and vault cash—by a little less than $1 trillion. The Fed controls the monetary base 100% and does so by purchasing and selling assets in the open market. By such a radical move, the Fed signaled a 180-degree shift in its focus from an anti-inflation position to an anti-deflation position."

I have a few problems with that statement. To begin with, the notion that the Federal Reserve signaled a 180-degree shift in focus to move "from an anti-inflation position to an anti-deflation position" is about equivalent to saying that the temperature control system in your house has a fundamentally different objective when the heater kicks off in June and the air conditioning kicks on. The essence of an inflation objective—even an implicit one—is that a central bank will lean against price-level changes substantially below the desired rate, as well as changes substantially above the desired rate. You can certainly argue with the policymakers' forecasts and diagnoses of risks at any given time, but it serves the debate well to not muddle tactics (focusing on inflation or deflation as the economic weather requires) and objectives (the control of the inflation rate that is Mr. Laffer's true concern).

But that point is a quibble. The increase in the U.S. monetary base has indeed been something to behold, and the Laffer article gives a good explanation about why you might be worried about that:

"Bank reserves are crucially important because they are the foundation upon which banks are able to expand their liabilities and thereby increase the quantity of money.

"Banks are required to hold a certain fraction of their liabilities—demand deposits and other checkable deposits—in reserves held at the Fed or in vault cash. Prior to the huge increase in bank reserves, banks had been constrained from expanding loans by their reserve positions. They weren't able to inject liquidity into the economy, which had been so desperately needed in response to the liquidity crisis that began in 2007 and continued into 2008. But since last September, all of that has changed. Banks now have huge amounts of excess reserves, enabling them to make lots of net new loans…

"At present, banks are doing just what we would expect them to do. They are making new loans and increasing overall bank liabilities (i.e., money). The 12-month growth rate of M1 is now in the 15% range, and close to its highest level in the past half century."

OK, but in my opinion it is a bit of a stretch—so far, at least—to correlate monetary base growth with bank loan growth:

061109

Let's call that more than a bit of a stretch.

The Laffer argument is in large part about what the future will bring. But we know that the payment of interest on bank reserves—which we have discussed in this forum many times (here and here, for example)—means a higher demand for reserves in the future than in the past. This change, of course, means that levels of the monetary base that would have seemed scary in the past will become the new normal. How big can the "new normal" be? That's a good question, and one I will continue to contemplate. But the assertion in the Laffer article that "a major contraction in monetary base" is required cannot be supported by either current evidence or simple economic theory.

There is, however, more. Whatever policy choices are required to deliver a noninflationary environment going forward, Mr. Laffer seems convinced that the central bank is not up to making them:

"Alas, I doubt very much that the Fed will do what is necessary to guard against future inflation and higher interest rates. If the Fed were to reduce the monetary base by $1 trillion, it would need to sell a net $1 trillion in bonds. This would put the Fed in direct competition with Treasury's planned issuance of about $2 trillion worth of bonds over the coming 12 months. Failed auctions would become the norm and bond prices would tumble, reflecting a massive oversupply of government bonds."

On this I will just turn to my boss, Atlanta Fed President Dennis Lockhart, who addressed this very issue in a speech given today at the National Association of Securities Professionals Annual Pension and Financial Services Conference in Atlanta:

"The concerns about our economic path are crystallized in doubts expressed in some quarters about the Federal Reserve's ability to fulfill its obligation to deliver low and stable inflation in the face of very large current and prospective federal deficits. In a word, the concerns are about monetization of the resulting federal debt.

"I do not dismiss these concerns out of hand. I also recognize that the task of pursuing the Fed's dual mandate of price stability and sustainable growth will be greatly complicated should deliberate and timely action to address our fiscal imbalances fail to materialize. But I have full confidence in the Federal Reserve's ability and resolve to meet its inflation objectives in whatever environment presents itself. Of the many risks the U.S. and global economies still confront, I firmly believe the Fed losing sight of its inflation objectives is not among them."

'Nuff said, for now.

By David Altig, senior vice president and research director, at the Atlanta Fed

June 11, 2009 in Inflation, Monetary Policy | Permalink

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Laffer's right. Since Bernanke was appointed to the Chairman of the Federal Reserve, the rate-of-change in legal reserves (the proxy for inflation), dropped for 29 consecutive months (out of a possible 39, or sufficient to wring inflation out of the economy).

It’s only been in the last 10 successive months (since Aug 2008), that the FED’s “tight” monetary policy was finally reversed. An overcautious Federal Open Market Committee acted too late to prevent an extremely high transactions velocity of money from declining (such a velocity is required just to maintain prices at their current levels).

First, there is no ambiguity in forecasts: In contradistinction to Bernanke (and using his terminology), forecasts are mathematically "precise”:

(1) nominal GDP is measured by monetary flows (MVt);

2) Income velocity is a contrived figure (fabricated); it’s the transactions velocity (bank debits, demand deposit turnover) that matters;

(3) “money” is the measure of liquidity; &

(4) the rates-of-change (roc’s) used by the Fed are specious (always at an annualized rate; which never coincides with an economic lag). The Fed’s technical staff, et al., has learned their catechisms;

Friedman became famous using only half the equation (the means-of-payment money supply), leaving his believers with the labor of Sisyphus.

Contrary to all economists, the lags for monetary flows (MVt), i.e. proxies for (1) real-GDP and the (2) deflator are exact, unvarying - respectively.

Roc’s in (MVt) are always measured with the same length of time as the specific economic lag (as its influence approaches its maximum impact; as demonstrated by the clustering on a scatter plot diagram).

Not surprisingly, adjusted member commercial bank "free/gratis" legal reserves (their roc’s) corroborate/mirror, both lags for monetary flows (MVt) –-- their lengths, or frequency, are identical -- (as the weighted arithmetic average of reserve ratios remains constant)

The lags for both monetary flows (MVt) & "free/gratis" legal reserves are synchronous or indistinguishable. Consequently, economic forecast are mathematically infallable (which includes housing bubbles, commodity bubbles, etc.).

This is the “Holy Grail” & it is inviolate & sacrosanct.

The BEA uses quarterly accounting periods for real GDP and deflator. The accounting periods for GDP should correspond to the economic lag, not quarterly.

Monetary policy objectives should not be in terms of any particular rate or range of growth of any monetary aggregate. Rather, policy should be formulated in terms of desired roc’s in monetary flows (MVt) relative to roc’s in real GDP.

Note: roc’s in nominal GDP can serve as a proxy figure for roc’s in all transactions. Roc’s in real GDP have to be used, of course, as a policy standard.

Because of monopoly elements, and other structural defects, which raise costs, and prices, unnecessarily, and inhibit downward price flexibility in our markets, it is probably advisable to follow a monetary policy which will permit the r-o-c in monetary flows to exceed the r-o-c in real GDP by c. 2 – 3 percentage points.

In other words, some inflation is inevitable given our present market structure and the commitment of the federal government to hold unemployment rates at tolerable levels.

Some people prefer the devil theory of inflation: “It’s all Peak Oil's fault" or ”Peak Debt's fault". This approach ignores the fact that the evidence of inflation, is represented by "actual" prices in the marketplace.

The "administered" prices of the world's oil producing countries would not be the "asked" prices were they not “validated” by (MVt), i.e., validated by the world's Central Banks ( i.e., as Friedman maintained "inflation is always and everywhere a monetary phenomenon")

Posted by: flow5 | June 11, 2009 at 05:08 PM

Translation. If Congress does not get back to sustainable budgets, then the Fed will utilize the double dip scenario.

Posted by: Mattyoung | June 11, 2009 at 06:02 PM

An educated well explained response to an article written by a discredited imbecile economist who gets prime time coverage through the WSJ. This is the problem with the media in general. The "real" info is here but the masses are brainwashed with the crap in the WSJ.

Posted by: Amit Chokshi | June 11, 2009 at 10:39 PM

David:

While I follow your arguments in the first part of the post, I am a little bit puzzled by its "conclusion." In his comments, Art Laffer is making a claim about the "Fed [being] in direct competition with Treasury's planned issuance of about $2 trillion worth of bonds over the over the coming 12 months." However, you "counterclaim" is nothing more than a citation from Dennis Lockhart stating his confidence in the Fed and in its ability to keep its inflation objectives in sight. This sounds more like "propaganda" than an explanation on how the Fed plans to actually achieve these goals! In other words, I (unfortunately) don't see anything in this citation that refutes Mr. Laffer's statement ... Am I missing something here?

Posted by: Sam | June 11, 2009 at 11:49 PM

The arrangement whereby banks keep reserves on deposit at the Federal Reserve is the mechanism by which it controls the level of the policy fed funds rate. This is the first time that the Fed has also wanted to use reserve deposits as a material source of funding for its own balance sheet. Which requires that it pay interest on reserves, as explained in a number of your posts.

There is a difference between creating supersized excess reserves for the purpose of satisfying reserve demand from depository institutions, and creating them as a funding mechanism for the Federal Reserve balance sheet. The second purpose is more relevant for monetary policy in this case. Balance sheet expansion requires funding expansion of some sort. The use of reserves for this purpose is evident in the fact that the Fed has chosen to calibrate reserve demand by paying interest on supersized reserve balances almost from the outset. This reinforces the central function of reserve policy as the control over the level of the fed funds rate – including structural preparedness for an “exit strategy” from extraordinary balance sheet expansion.

The Fed web-site requires updating on the mechanisms of reserve management. In this regard, it would be helpful to discard the silly textbook “reserve multiplier” model, which countless economists still cling to, probably including your critic in this case. The “multiplier” idea has had virtually nothing to do with the way in which the Federal Reserve has actually operated for decades. The payment of interest on supersized reserves is a well deserved smack in the face for this obsolete notion.

Posted by: JKH | June 12, 2009 at 06:11 AM

Internationally traded commodity prices are shooting up. The dollar is falling. The stock market has quickly become overpriced based on fundamentals. Huge deficits will either be monetized causing inflation or they will crowd out private investment delaying economic recovery. The data suggests we are in the early phases of a severe inflation.

People do not understand that stagflation is a very real danger. The reason is that the path of recovery does not take us back to where we were in 2006. There are huge bottlenecks in the economy that will delay a healthy expansion for 2-3 years. Recovery will have to occur without an expansion of investment in housing and without consumer spending returning to unsustainable levels.

The fed did the right thing in flooding the financial markets with liquidity late in 2008. But the massive and unnecessary bailouts combined with a permanent expansion in federal government spending will make it very difficult for the fed to drain this liquidity from the system.

We may quibble about technical details of Laffer's article but the fundamentals point strongly in the direction of stagflation. All it will take is the slightest reluctance of the fed to raise interest rates rapidly in the next few months.

Posted by: Charles R. Williams | June 12, 2009 at 09:52 AM

You have to ask yourself a few questions:

Do Obama and the Fed have the political will to reign in this monetary expansion when inflation takes hold?

Does anyone see the Fed increasing interest rates next year during an election year?

What will happen to inflation if the answers to the above 2 questions are “NO”?

Posted by: Austrian School | June 12, 2009 at 01:54 PM

I cannot see how the Fed will manage to drain liquidity by selling those debt papers it bought at mark-to-model prices. Which rational investor will buy these assets - "toxic" or not - at roughly the same prices the Fed paid for them? If there'd been a market the Fed would not have needed to buy what nobody else wanted.
The Fed's intervention simply has to backfire as it is the only player in the market with pockets that can never be empty.
Alas, they are not the only ones with said problem as a look at the belance sheets of other major central banks clearly shows. This simply has to result in sustained money supply growth equals monetary inflation.
We are in uncharted territory - or at least I am - as the only case where fast money supply growth did not result in higher inflation was in Germany in the years after reunification. Rich Germany could afford it, not least to the conservative/tight monetary policy of Karl Otto Pöhl who disillusioned euphoric bankers by raising the key rate a full point to 7% when markets were expecting a step down. Had he not demonstrated that the Bundesbank would never leave the path of fighting inflation, Germany might have taken the disastrous course the USA has followed in this millennium.

Posted by: The Prudent Investor | June 12, 2009 at 06:54 PM

"But we know that the payment of interest on bank reserves—which we have discussed in this forum many time...This change, of course, means that levels of the monetary base that would have seemed scary in the past will become the new NORMAL".

Friedman's "monetary base" was never a base for the expansion of new money & credit:
Flawed as the AMBLR figure is (Adjusted Member Bank Legal Reserves), it is still far superior to the Domestic Adjusted Monetary Base (DAMB) figure, which is generally cited. The DAMB figure includes AMBLR plus the volume of currency held by the nonblank public (Milton Friedman’s “high powered money”).

Since the public determines its holdings of currency an expansion or contraction of DAMB is neither proof that the Fed intends to follow an expansive, nor a contractive monetary policy. Furthermore any expansion of the non-bank public’s holdings of currency merely changes the composition (but not the total volume) of the money supply. There is a shift out of demand deposits, NOW or ATS accounts into currency. But this shift does reduce Member Bank Legal Reserves by an equal or approximately equal amount.

Since the member commercial banks operate with no excess legal reserves of consequence since 1942, any expansion of the publics holdings of currency will cause a multiple contraction of bank credit and checking accounts (relative to the increase in currency outflows from the banks) ceteris paribus. To avoid such a contraction the Fed offsets currency withdrawals by open market operations of the buying type. The reverse is true if there is a return flow of currency to the banks.

Since the trend of the non-bank public’s holdings of currency is up (ever since the 1920’s), return flows are purely seasonal and cannot therefore provide a permanent basis for bank credit and money expansion.

In our Federal Reserve System, 90 percent of MO (domestic adjusted monetary base) is currency. There is no expansion coefficient for currency. And the currency component of MO is so prominent, and the proportion of legal reserves so negligible (and declining); that to measure the rate-of-change in currency held by the non-bank public, to the rate-of-change in M1 (where 54% is currency), is, yes, to measure currency vs. currency (hoc ergo propter hoc); in probability theory and statistics, not a cause and effect relationship.

Complicating the measurement of the monetary base is the fluctuation in the percentage of foreign currency circulation to domestic currency circulation (estimated at ½ to 2/3 of all U.S. currency).

I.e., the domestic monetary source base equals the monetary source base minus the estimated amount of foreign-held U.S. currency. Inflows and outflows of foreign-held U.S. currency (seldom repatriated) are related to political and price instability, as well as seasonal flows; (though arguably, it is till money for the prudential reserve “Euro-dollar Market”), and all are immeasurable in the short run...

The “shipments proxy” estimate of foreign-held U.S. currency uses data on the receipts and shipments of currency, by denomination, at the Federal Reserve’s 37 cash offices nationwide (note: > 80 percent of foreign-held U.S. currency are $100.00 bills). Because of its influence on the DAMB, quarterly estimates of foreign-held U.S. currency are reported in the Feds “Flow of Funds Accounts of the United States” & in the BEAs estimates of the net international investment position of the United States.

The volatility of the K-ratio (publics desired ratio of currency to transactions deposits, currency-deposit-ratio), and the volatility in the ratio of foreign-held to domestic U.S. currency, both influence the forecast of the (1) cash drain factor, and (2) the movement of the domestic currency component of the DAMB. This causes unpredictable shifts in the money multiplier (MULT – St. Louis), [sic], for M1 and thus M2.

The Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago uses legal reserves (“t”-accounts), exclusively, to explain the creation of new money in the booklet “Modern Money Mechanics”. The booklet is a workbook on bank reserves and deposit expansion (changes in bank balance sheets that occur when deposits in banks change as a result of monetary action by the Federal Reserve System – the central bank of the United States). The stated purpose of the booklet is to “describe the basic process of money creation in a "fractional reserve" banking system” - the monetary base has no role in this analysis.

It is therefore both incorrect in theory and thus inaccurate in practice, to refer the DAMB figure as a monetary base [sic]. The only base for an expansion of total bank credit and the money supply is the volume of legal reserves supplied to the member banks by the Fed in excess of the volume necessary to offset currency outflows from the banking system. The adjusted member bank legal reserve figure is that base.

Posted by: flow5 | June 13, 2009 at 01:06 PM

What is the proper volume of legal reserves? This depends on the “multiplier”, the transactions velocity of money, and the rate-of-change in real-GDP.

All of these variables can be estimated with a high degree of accuracy, and the rate-of-change in real-GDP serves as a close proxy to rates-of- change in total physical transactions, in both goods and services.

Since 1942, the “money multiplier” has been a comparatively constant measure using either:

(A) commercial bank credit (St. Louis FED), or

(B) the 60 largest CBs on the Board’s H.8 release,

[divided (by) legal reserves - my definition]

From 1947-1977 the multiplier doubled in 30 years; from 1977-2005 the multiplier doubled again in 35 years. At its current pace the multiplier will double in 6 years.

At the beginning of the “monetarist experiment” (see Paul Volcker Oct 6th 1979 pronouncement that the FED would henceforth de-emphasize the control of the federal funds rate and concentrate on holding the monetary aggregates in check. We were advised to “watch the money supply”),

Back then Money Market Services, Inc, was surveying sixty individuals for their weekly predictions on the expected volume of M-1. It happened that for the week ending Oct 10, the Board of Governors reported that M1 had increased $2.8b.

But on the subsequent week’s revision Manufacturers Hanover was found to have overstated its customer’s deposits (and the FED’s money supply figure), by $3.0b.

A simple but correct (not textbook), money multiplier is equal to commercial bank credit divided by applied vault cash + inter-bank demand deposits held at the District Federal Reserve Banks.

I.e., commercial bank credit divided by the system’s legal reserves equals the money multiplier. Using the correct multiplier in 1979 would have given speculators in CBOT Treasury Bond futures the necessary information to make a quick trading profit.

Until this recession/depression, monetary expansion responded immediately to an injection of reserves into the system. The FED could project with a high degree of reliability, the probable rate-of-increase in monetary flows (MVt), relative to the probable increase in real-GDP.

Because of our “market structure”, the first rate (monetary flows) should exceed the latter. How much? That is a policy judgment involving trade-offs, but perhaps by no more than 2-3%

Posted by: flow5 | June 13, 2009 at 01:13 PM

Bernanke’s strategy is perfectly obvious and his target strangely elliptical. Reserve requirements are applied to the bank’s liabilities after a 30 day lag.

The sum of the bank’s (1) required reserves, and (2) required clearing balances, equals the correct (most accurate) “source-base” (note past reductions in required reserves have been accompanied by offsetting increases in the member bank’s clearing balances).

Note that Milton Friedman’s “high powered money” and legal reserves are not the same thing. Friedman wrongly adds currency held by the non-bank public to his “base”. Friedman, et al, are wrong because an increase in currency is deflationary (unless offset by the expansion of reserve bank credit).

Required balances combined with the reserve ratios applicable to 3 subdivisions of bank deposits (only net transaction accounts), determine the limits and, since 1942, the amounts of bank credit creation.

Until very recently, member commercial banks have held an insignificant volume of (1) free reserves (excess minus borrowed), and (2) excess reserves (total minus required). Note: (3) borrowed reserves are those obtained through the FED’s “liquidity funding facilities” (discounts & advances).

The monetary authorities have to have complete discretion over changes in reserve ratios. This is essential since under fractional reserve banking (the essence of commercial banking) these ratios determine the minimum volume of legal reserves a bank must hold against a specific volume and type of deposit liability.

Bank credit creation is a “system” process. No bank or minority group (from an asset standpoint) can expand credit (and the money supply) significantly faster than the majority group (or the “legally bound” banks), are expanding.

Legally bound banks have required reserves. Prior to the DIDMCA of 1980 “legally bound” banks were demarcated as “membership” banks (in 1980 the member banks held only 65% of all the banking system’s assets).

Under current regulations, the “non-bound” (formally non-member) banks have no reserve requirements (pre DIDMCA some state legislators allowed earning assets to be counted as legal reserves or allowed for the “pyramiding” of reserves (i.e., when the non-member banks purchased earning assets, the banks also increased their legal reserves).

In other words, if the “legally bound” banks hold a substantial majority (70-80%) of the assets of the entire system, the FED, through controlling the legal reserves of the “legally bound” banks can control the expansion of total bank credit, for both “bound banks” and “not bound banks”.
Legal or required reserves are determined by a “legally bound” bank’s “net transaction accounts”:

(1) Beginning at the regulation’s bottom tier there is an “exemption amount”, or, a lower level deposit exclusion (with no reserve ratio requirement).

(2) Above the exemption level is the bank’s “low-reserve tranche” (a 3% reserve ratio is applied to these liabilities).

(3) At the “top bracket” (above the low-level tranche), all net transaction accounts require a 10% reserve ratio.

Even so, according the FED’s technical staff, reserve requirements for the system as a whole, are no longer binding. In other words, the system’s “expansion coefficient” is a progressively elastic variable.

The current enormous volume of “excess” reserves (see H.3 release), restricts or constricts the system’s “money multiplier”. Contrary to the pundits, increases in “excess” reserves (which represent idle & unused lending capacity), offset or absorb increases in the FED’s balance sheet (or increases in Reserve Bank Credit).

When the Federal Reserve Banks expand credit, for example, by buying U.S. obligations, the balance sheets of the District Banks reflect an increase in earning assets (in the System Open Market Account - SOMA), and an equal increase in IBDD liabilities, i.e., "free/gratis" legal reserves (contrary to the bankers, legal reserves from a system’s standpoint are not a tax).

Or, increases in these “excess” reserves function like open market operations of the selling type (but with their enormous volume, $877b on May 20, 2009, excess reserves function exactly like raising reserve ratios would have).

Don’t be mislead, the member bank’s “tax” [sic] is equal to the “money multiplier” times the volume of its “source base”, or instead of an accounting expense, it is the equivalent to an astronomical profit shared among (1) the commercial banks, (2) the Federal Reserve District Banks, and the 97% rebate transferred from (SOMA) to (3) the U.S. Treasury.

If the FED really desired to increase securities, loans, & investments (bank credit), it would lower the remuneration rate on “excess” reserves (the interest rate of return on reserves (IORs) is now .25% higher than the benchmark FFR).

Since 1942 banks always remained fully “lent-up”, they held no excessive amount of excess legal lending capacity to finance business (or consumers), they have used excess reserves to acquire a piece of the national debt or other creditorship obligations that are eligible for bank investment.

But with IORs equal to the Federal Funds Rate (FFR) [or higher], the exercise of FED policy is often likened either to “pushing on a string” (when it attempts to execute an expansionary monetary policy).

Posted by: flow5 | June 13, 2009 at 01:15 PM

As long as the “legally bound” banks hold a significant majority of the total assets of the banking system (all money creating institutions), and operate with no significant volume of excess legal reserves, the FED can control the money supply, that is providing they have the commitment to do so. Both of these conditions have prevailed since 1942—but not the commitment.

The only tool at the disposal of the monetary authorities in a free capitalistic system through which the volume of money can be controlled is legal reserves. The sine qua non of monetary management is total current control by a central monetary authority over the volume of legal reserves held by all money creating institutions, and over the reserve ratios applicable to their deposits.

The first rule of reserves and reserve ratios should be to require that all money creating depository institutions have the same legal reserve requirements, both as to types of assets eligible for reserves, as well as the level of reserve ratios. To be successful, monetary policy should limit all reserves to balances in the District Federal Reserve banks (IBDDs), and have UNIFORM reserve ratios, for ALL deposits, in ALL banks, irrespective of size (see: Member Bank Reserve Requirements -- Analysis of Committee Proposal, February 27, 1940…the study conclusions were declassified (the conclusions were once top secret!) on March 23, 1983).

Monetarism involves controlling the volume of TOTAL reserves, not the volume of non-borrowed reserves as administered by Paul Volcker. I.e., one dollar of borrowed reserves provides the same legal-economic base for the expansion of money as one dollar of non-borrowed reserves. The fact that advances had to be repaid in (x) number of days is immaterial. A new advance can be obtained, or the borrowing bank replaced by other borrowing banks.

Federal Reserve Chairman Paul Volcker was directly responsible for the exemption and elimination of usury rates of interest on consumer debt in 1980 (usury is lending money at high interest rates, ones that make repayment very difficult, or sometimes impossible - even for creditworthy borrowers). This is also called "loan sharking" or "predatory lending” (or in today’s tongue, credit card, sub-prime, & payday loans).

The importance of controlling borrowed reserves was indicated by the fact that -- at times during 1980 nearly 10% of all legal reserves were borrowed. Even more unmistakable, beginning in January 2008 the FOMC operated at all times, entirely with (net) borrowed reserves (i.e., (NON)-BORROWED reserves have been NEGATIVE ). As any monetarist should know, if the money supply is controlled properly, the determination of interest rates can be left to market forces.

These are the pertinent parts regarding the MCA of 1980 published in the Federal Reserve Bulletin June 1993: “After years of debate, the Congress finally adopted legislation to reform reserve requirement rules: “the success of this procedure (adopting a reserves-based operating procedure designed to maintain a close, short-run, control of M1), depended on how tight the link was between reserves…and the level of M1 deposits in the entire banking system” (how efficiently the Federal Funds Market circulates, redistributes, and links member bank’s excess reserves).

But with the DIDMCA the Board of Governors legally commingled, and consequently blurred, the inter-relationships between 2 distinct types of bank lending operations. In effect Congress merged the banks into a single organization, with few, or virtually unrestricted lending regulations:
(1) no interest rate ceilings,
(2) minimal or no legal reserves,
(3) as well as increasingly insignificant reserve ratios,
(4) i.e., smaller & smaller fractions were required against new & existing bank deposits.
(5) and smaller reserve ratios are applied to a declining proportion, & a reduced number of deposit classifications.

Thus by edict, the principle financial intermediaries were destroyed, and a money creating System was fostered, which the Fed cannot now monitor, and has yet to bring under control.

Thus it is observed that the tenants of monetarism have never been tried.


Posted by: flow5 | June 13, 2009 at 01:17 PM

I had the exact same reading as Sam: the article made solid arguments, but then just lost wind in the end. If Lockhart's quote is meant to refute Laffer, this leads the reader to conclude that the FED *will* sell bonds to combat inflation, regardless of the upward effect this will have on Treasury bond rates.

Posted by: Paul | June 13, 2009 at 07:34 PM

They need to pick it up. We are going into the hole.

Posted by: Narconon Arrowhead | June 16, 2009 at 12:11 PM

Flow5 -

Your analysis is fundamentally flawed. Banks are never reserve constrained (they can always obtain reserves in the open market, and the Fed has no discretion in providing them if it wants to maintain it's target interest rate). Canada gets along quite well with no reserve requirements.

Posted by: Jim Baird | June 18, 2009 at 03:07 PM

Your right that the member banks are not constrained in their lending. But the FED does have discretion to prevent them from obtaining additional reserves. The problem is that the FED always accommodates the bankers.

It is just the "trading desks" technique that is wrong. The money supply can never be managed by any attempt to control the cost of credit.

Posted by: flow5 | June 23, 2009 at 11:22 AM

The buying and selling of Treasury bills, etc., under the auspices of the Manager of the Open Market Account through the New York Federal Reserve Bank for the accounts of all Federal Reserve Banks are tied to the benchmark federal funds target. As a guide to open market operations the targets are used as follows: a rise in the federal funds rate above the target rate, triggers open market purchases; a fall below the target rate, selling operations. Open market operations of the buying type add legal reserves to the banking system; selling operations reduce reserves.

To increase the volume of legal reserves in the member banks, the Fed buys governments, (usually T-Bills) in the open market in sufficient quantity to more than offset all legal reserve consuming factors (e.g., the withdrawals of currency from the banks by the non-bank public). These purchases tend to increase the price of bills, thus reducing their discounts (interest rates). The incremental reserves also add to excess reserves thus enlarging the supply of “federal funds”. Federal funds rates are thus held down, or are prevented from rising.

The technicians in charge of the hour-to-hour administration of open market operations apparently believe that there is, at any given time, a federal funds rate that is consonant with a proper rate of change in the money supply. They have in fact plugged this concept into a computer model. What they have in fact "plugged in" is an open ended device through which the commercial banks can decide whether or not there should be an expansion in the legal lending capacity of the banking system - the capacity to create credit ( money ) and to acquire additional earning assets. This power should reside exclusively in the central monetary authorities.

That this expansion in money and credit will always take place is attested to by the banks opportunity to arbitrage between their cost to borrow short, and lend long. As long as it is profitable for borrowers to borrow, and commercial banks to lend, money creation is not self regulatory.

Since the member banks are remunerated @ .25 IOR%, the bankers are currently unwilling to acquire additional reserves, to support the expansion of deposits, resulting from their loan expansion (at rates much greater than what they already receive for highly liquid, risk free excess reserves @.25 IOR%). The stop-out rate has recently hit this percentage for 2 days in a row.

Otherwise if they use the federal funds market, which is typical, they know that if the aggregate of their bids for federal funds pushes the rate above the target rate set by the “trading desk”, this would automatically trigger buy orders; thus expanding Reserve Bank credit, and bank legal, and excess reserves, and soon a multiple volume of money is created on the basis of any given increase in legal reserves. THIS IS THE PROCESS BY WHICH THE FED HAS AGAIN, FINANCED THE RAMPANT REAL-ESTATE SPECULATION IN THIS COUNTRY.

Posted by: flow5 | June 23, 2009 at 05:56 PM

Jim Baird – you didn’t read what I wrote:
The powers of the FED are truly awesome. two spectacular examples:

(1) in the context of the Continental Illinois Bank rescue (where it was advanced 11% of the banking system’s legal reserves) &

(2) in the context of the phenomenal expansion in the FEDs balance sheet.

While it is true that most people attribute powers to the FED that it doesn’t have, the FED can directly control the rate-of-change in bank reserves-regardless. The fact that reserves are no longer binding hasn't yet changed that power.

“Since no one in the Fed tracks reserves, such a coincidence in the data perhaps confirms that the Fed funds rate settings have been correct...most banks no longer face binding statutory reserve requirements -- increasing amounts of vault cash (including ATM networks) plus retail deposit sweep programs have wiped aside such binding requirement...Banks need central bank deposits for clearing checks and making other interbank payments, which gives the central bank leverage over money and bond markets…Today, with bank reserves largely driven by bank payments (debits), your views on bank debits and legal reserves sound right!”

Bernanke is a treasure

Posted by: flow5 | June 24, 2009 at 03:55 PM

The FED could conceivably increase its balance sheet to $100 trillion over the next 10 years to combat US and World deflationary pressures. You may say that the dollar would lose its value, but as long as the rest of the World is in slightly worse shape then the US, that may not be an issue.

Posted by: jsc | June 25, 2009 at 08:05 PM

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June 03, 2009

Debt and money

If you are hunkered down on inflation watch, yesterday's news offered some soothing words. From Reuters:

"Chinese officials have expressed concern that heavy deficit spending and an ultra-loose monetary policy could spark inflation, eroding the value of China's U.S. bond holdings.

"But [U.S. Treasury Secretary Timothy] Geithner said: 'We have a strong, independent Fed and I am completely confident they have the ability to do their job under the law, which is to keep inflation stable and low over time, and that they will be able to—and certainly intend to—unwind these exceptional measures as soon as they have served their purpose.' "

And from Bloomberg:

"He said that there was 'no risk' of the U.S. monetizing its debt, a response to a question about whether the government would seek to finance the national debt by expanding the money supply and thus trigger a rise in inflation."

Concerns about such monetization arose in the wake of the FOMC's decision at its March meeting to purchase up to $300 billion of longer-term Treasury securities and that decision's coincidence with the very large fiscal deficits contemplated in President Obama's budget proposals. Those concerns have accelerated as longer-term Treasury yields have moved higher since.

There will, I trust, be plenty of opportunity to expand on these concerns as things develop, but for now I will offer just a little perspective in the form of the chart below, which shows the recent and (near-term) prospective shares of federal debt held by the Federal Reserve. The red line represents the share of debt that will be held by the Fed at the end of fiscal year 2009 if the $300 billion Treasury purchase program is completed and the federal deficit emerges as currently predicted by the Congressional Budget Office.

060209a

The financial crisis has, of course, borne witness to the shift in the Fed's balance sheet from Treasuries (which have been much in demand by the private sector) to a variety of loans and mortgage-backed securities. The consequence has been a sharp fall in the fraction of government debt held by the central bank, a fact that will be little changed under the current trajectory of Fed purchases and projected deficit spending.

A large decline in Fed holdings of Treasury bills—securities that mature in one year or less—drives much of the pattern seen in the chart above. The drop-off in share is not as large for Treasury notes—securities in the two- to ten-year maturity range, and some assumptions have to be made to get a picture of how the Fed's share might evolve over the near term. Without knowing how this evolution will occur, I developed two general assumptions for argument sake. If net new issues of Treasury debt follow historical averages, meaning just over half of net new debt is in the form of notes, and if the central bank applies the remainder of the $300 billion of longer-term Treasury purchases (about $170 billion at the end May) to notes, then the Fed would hold roughly 13 percent of the outstanding stock by the end of the year. If the Treasury were to issue nothing but bills or bonds, a $170 billion purchase of notes by the Fed would bring its share up to the neighborhood of 17 percent. Though these numbers are not as unusually low in historical context as is the case for total outstanding debt, neither would they jump off the page as an extreme aberration in the other direction.

060209b

Some might argue that "monetization" these days involves a whole lot more than government debt, but Chairman Bernanke has been pretty clear about his intentions regarding the overall size of the Fed's balance sheet. And, as I see it, so far allegations that extraordinary steps are being taken specifically to accommodate fiscal deficits are properly characterized as risk rather than fact.

By David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed

June 3, 2009 in Federal Debt and Deficits, Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Inflation | Permalink

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I think this is an oversimplification. large number of Treasuries in the past were being held as assets from banks not the result of Quantative Easing.

If you look at the fact the fed has been trading sercure T-bills for dubious assests and printing money to acquire treasuries.

I think their is a strong possibility that the Fed ia allowing positioning itself to absorb billions in write downs on the non-Treasury assets.

The end result will be another laundering of Toxic Assets for the banks. The Fed will have basically monetized the Bank Losses onto the American Taxpayer who will be stuck paying the Fed to moentize banks bad lending.

Posted by: Kevin | June 04, 2009 at 10:25 AM

I found this blog really good, this is a best way to share information to increase knowledge and learning capabilities. good work

Posted by: Research Paper Writing | June 05, 2009 at 02:46 AM

David - thanks. You "wouldn't believe" how widespread, prevalent, virulent and heartfelt this meme is; nor what damage it's doing about the finance/invest/econ/bizz communities AND the normal folk who don't walk like that. Here and in your day job it would be in your and your organization's interest to continue to pursue and explain the situation, mechanisms and ramifications.

The sound and fury signifying nothing is about 99% of the discussion; other than one Krugman column and this I can find little or nothing sensible.

Posted by: dblwyo | June 05, 2009 at 09:01 PM

Now all that said two strictly bloggish comments or questions that build on the concerns:
1) in charting TNX for the last several charts I see nothing aberrational about current rates; instead there's an aberrational price jump beginning around Sep08 or so. Gee, I wonder why that is ?

2) how do you guys estimate Velocity ? I tried a poor man's version using FRED II data on GDP (real,nominal), M2 (M3 and MZM were similar)and the GDP Deflator for MV=PQ by V = GDP/MZM. On that basis V has fallen ~21% since Q406 having risen ~9.2% from Q303 to Q306. That rise would seem reasonable for a slow recovery but that seems like a significant fall in a shorter timeframe ?

Posted by: dblwyo | June 05, 2009 at 09:20 PM

People who are concerned about "monetization" simply don't understand how our monetary system works. Reserves are one kind of deposit at the Fed; Treasuries are another kind of deposit. Other than interest rates (and with the Fed paying interest on reserves now, even that is a wash), there is no difference between them - they are both financial liabilities of the Federal government, not convertible into anything else. If the Treasury ceased to issue securities, all that would happen is that interest rates would drop to zero.

The monetization-phobes are stuck in a gold-standard way of thinking that is totally inapplicable to current floating exchange rate fiat money regimes.

Posted by: Jim Baird | June 08, 2009 at 09:02 AM

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April 06, 2009

The mean and the variance of the longer-term inflation outlook

Ever hear the one about the statistician who had his head in the oven, his feet in the freezer, but who said he felt fine—on average? We kind of feel that way when we look at the recent distribution of inflation forecasts. Not only does the Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta produce its own economic forecasts, but we’re also eager consumers of others’ forecasts. That’s because we believe there is useful information to be learned from varying views. For one thing, it helps to reveal the risks. The current inflation forecast is a good case-in-point.

Figure 1 shows the consensus CPI forecast for the Blue Chip panel of economic forecasters from March 10:

040609b  

The “average” forecast shows CPI-measured inflation falling at a 2.25 percent (annualized) pace in the current quarter, followed by a modest .25 percent rise in the second quarter and then gradually climbing to a 2 percent growth trend in the second half of next year.

Our interpretation of the Blue Chip consensus inflation forecast (if such a thing is really possible, since it’s merely an average of many forecasts) is that falling energy and other commodity prices combined with a large amount of economic slack is likely to exert considerable downward pressure on inflation over the next few quarters. But as the economy gradually recovers, we should begin to see a gradual return of inflation to something closer to what the Federal Reserve sees as consistent with price stability.

OK, that’s the combined wisdom of the 50-some members of the consensus forecast panel. But there’s a bit more to the story than just the average forecast. Consider the 10 highest inflation forecasts relative to the 10 lowest. The inflation “optimists” see the CPI tracking at, or a shade under, 0.5 percent over the forecast horizon, while the pessimists see inflation continuing to move higher and topping 3 percent (annualized) in the second half of 2010. Now, some discrepancy in economic forecasts is to be expected, but the range of disagreement in the Blue Chip forecast about the longer-term inflation trend—at a little over 3 percentage points—is an exceptionally large spread. (By our calculations, it’s about twice the spread of the group’s longer-term average inflation prediction.)

However, we’ve got a pretty good idea of what’s causing such a large discrepancy. There likely are two competing and seemingly large risks within the consensus. First, some of these forecasters may believe the economy will not rebound in the way that is implied by the forecast average, which is to say that the economic slack (see Friday’s jobs report) putting downward pressure on inflation may be with us for some time. These forces could be exacerbated and prolonged if the public were to incorporate the lower near-term price behavior into their longer-term inflation expectations. We’re going to speculate that this is the inflation scenario the Blue Chip inflation “optimists” have in mind.

On the other side, some of these Blue Chip forecasters may believe the economy will do an abrupt about-face and climb out of the recession more adeptly than the consensus now predicts. In their view, if it does, and the Federal Reserve is not adept at shrinking the size of its balance sheet, there would be the proverbial inflationary scenario of “too much money chasing too few goods.” And, again, if the public incorporates this scenario into their expectations, the prediction of the inflationary pessimists comes to pass.

These competing inflation scenarios were a topic of conversation at the January Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) meeting (below is a quote from the minutes of that meeting):

“Many [FOMC meeting] participants noted some risk of a protracted period of excessively low inflation, especially if inflation expectations were to move down in response to lower actual inflation and increasing economic slack, and a few even saw some risk of deflation.

“Several others, however, anticipated that longer-run inflation expectations would remain well anchored, supported in part by the Federal Reserve’s aggressive expansion of its balance sheet and the resulting growth of the monetary base…some noted a risk that expected inflation might actually increase to an undesirably high level if the public does not understand that the Federal Reserve’s liquidity facilities will be wound down and its balance sheet will shrink as economic and financial conditions improve.”

One risk has feet in the fire—the other in the freezer. Here’s hoping that the consensus is right.

Update from April 6, 2009:

The April 10 Blue Chip report came out today, showing a further widening of the spread between the forecasts for CPI inflation. While the mean forecast was revised only slightly, the difference between the top and bottom 10 forecasts for Q4 2010 increased by a full percentage point, from 3.3 to 4.3.

040609c  

By Michael Bryan, vice president, and Laurel Graefe, economic analyst, in the research department at the Atlanta Fed

April 6, 2009 in Inflation | Permalink

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The "inflation pessimists" are right that inflation expectations of the public are for higher inflation. You can't read any media without being bombarded with stories about how much money is being spent (and printed) for bail outs. But the media are lying; the actual numbers for money supply and federal spending paint a more modest picture.

The "inflation optimists" are right that high unemployment will keep a damper on actual inflation (as opposed to expectations.) In fact, high inflation expectations are likely to restrain policy stimulus resulting in a weaker growth path than ideal.

Posted by: Rajesh Raut | April 06, 2009 at 12:30 PM

Now that is interestng. Thank you for you analysis. However, I'm wondering about the inference that can be made about the state of Economics. As the spread increases, does that imply that 'knowledge' decreases and 'quessing' increases? Interesting!

Posted by: Tom | April 07, 2009 at 06:51 AM

Two thumbs up, well done!

Posted by: runescape accounts | April 13, 2009 at 03:14 AM

It's incomprehensible to me that MacroEconomists can't find the integrity to demand the Gov't. update its principle economic gathering & reporting measurements be supported by population samplings. For 5 years we saw no inflation as measured by the CPI, when inflation for the majority of people in the U.S. was raging. Now Economists argue about deflation?
It's no wonder that so many of you cling to the absurdity that no one saw this catastrophy coming.

Posted by: bailey | April 14, 2009 at 09:48 AM

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March 03, 2009

Yet another cut at the recent retail price data

Much of modern business cycle theory—and the policy prescriptions that accompany it—rest on the idea that something interferes with markets. After all, if markets are working efficiently, there isn't anything that policy can do to improve matters. What that "something" is remains the great unknown in macroeconomics, but there is a common belief that price "stickiness" lies at the heart of the problem.

While economists wrestle with the question of what, exactly, causes prices to be sticky—that is, adjust more slowly than they would in the absence of whatever is getting in their way—some have taken on the tedious task of documenting the speed at which prices adjust. And, as you might imagine, it turns out that some prices adjust very quickly while others adjust at a glacial pace.

One of the most comprehensive investigations into the evidence of price stickiness was published a few years ago by economists Mark Bils of the University of Rochester and Peter Klenow of Stanford. Bils and Klenow dug through the unpublished data that are used to construct the consumer price index (CPI) and computed the frequency of price changes for 350 detailed spending categories. They concluded that between 1995 and 1997, half of these categories changed their prices at least every 4.3 months. Some categories changed their prices much more frequently. Price changes for tomatoes occurred about every three weeks. And some, like coin-operated laundries, changed prices on average only every 6½ years or so.

It has been argued—notably by Kosuke Aoki of the London School of Economics—that sticky prices are likely to incorporate forward-looking expectations and are therefore "a good candidate for a measure of core inflation."

We decided to take the data we use to compute another measure of core inflation—the median CPI—to produce a "sticky-price" and "flexible-price" CPI. There are some complications to this seemingly simple exercise. First, it isn't clear where one should draw the line between a sticky price and a flexible price. We rather arbitrarily decided to draw two lines, one at four months and another at six months. If price changes for a particular CPI component occur on average every four months or more frequently, we called that component a "flexible" price good and, if changes occurred less often than every six months, we labeled it a "sticky" price good. (We have called goods that change prices somewhere between every four and six months "semiflexible" and are generally ignoring them in this particular exercise.)

Second, since we're dealing with considerably fewer spending categories than Bils and Klenow did, we could only imperfectly match our data set to their results, so admittedly some art was applied in instances where sticky price goods and flexible price goods coexisted in the same spending category.

Those cautions aside, here's what we came up with, looking at data between 1998 and 2009.

030309a

Figure 1 shows the weighted distribution of the CPI market basket on the basis of its degree of price stickiness. In terms of the overall, or "headline" CPI, we judge that a little more than 50 percent of the index is composed of sticky price goods, 40 percent of the index is made up of flexible price goods, and the remainder is somewhere in between.

So, what do these measures tell us? Figure 2 below shows the four-month percent change in the sticky CPI and the flexible CPI, with the headline and the traditional core CPI included as dotted lines for reference.

030309b

Clearly the sticky-price CPI exhibits relatively smooth patterns, very similar to that exhibited by the traditional core CPI, while the flexible price CPI behaves in a way more consistent with the headline CPI. Such a correspondence between the core measure and the sticky-price measure isn't very surprising since food and energy items are heavily (though not exclusively) flexible price goods (see again figure 1).

So we also produced "core" measures of the sticky and flexible CPI (the sticky and flexible price CPI measures less food and energy), and these data are shown in figure 3.

030309c

One observation from this calculation is that sticky prices have tended to rise at a pace above the core flexible prices for a considerable period of time. Obviously something more than degree of price flexibility distinguishes these two price measures. But as an exercise in reading the incoming price data, the sharp drop in the flexible component of the core CPI is another clear indication of the strong disinflationary pressure on retail prices in recent months. Over the past four months, the core flexible CPI has fallen at a 2.6 percent pace, just a shade more than what we saw during the disinflation of 2003. And the sticky price core CPI? Well, it hasn't moved much—it's sticky. But the longer the disinflationary pressures on the economy persist, the more these prices will likely become unstuck as they too begin to reflect the price adjustments being reflected elsewhere in the consumer's market basket.

By Michael Bryan, Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta, and Brent Meyer, Federal Reserve Bank of Cleveland

March 3, 2009 in Data Releases, Inflation | Permalink

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I'd like to know whether or not the shelter cost -- rental and oer-- are included in the sticky components; and if so, what's their share? As BLS uses a 6-month moving avearge for inflation in these components, my conjecture is that it's likely they are in the sticky components.

Posted by: yuer | March 04, 2009 at 04:25 PM

This study has an interesting concept, but there are two things that I would change:

1) Define price change as a certain percentage change instead of an absolute change. Car prices probably change every month, but perhaps not significantly.

2) Going back to 1998 isn't enough to draw conclusions. Going back further (to the 1960s or earlier) is warranted.

Posted by: Paul | March 06, 2009 at 12:47 AM

I agree with Paul - can't make conclusions about predictability without going into a period of significant changing inflation - late 1970's and early 1980's.

Great study!

Posted by: Trate | March 06, 2009 at 03:56 PM

Can you tell us what were the largest items in the sticky-core category?

Posted by: Bob_in_MA | March 08, 2009 at 06:03 PM

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January 13, 2009

On expanding balance sheets and inflationary policy

Here's a question I hear a lot (most recently during the Q&A portion of a speech delivered yesterday by my boss, Atlanta Fed president Dennis Lockhart): Has monetary policy become so expansive that the central bank's mandate to maintain price stability has been fundamentally compromised? Is the increase in the scale of the Federal Reserve's balance sheet inherently inflationary?

Jim Hamilton covered much of the territory implied by these questions in a very extensive Econbrowser post not too long ago, but the distinction between money creation and Fed balance sheet expansion continues to be confounded. Here, for example, is a passage from the Wall Street Journal's Real Time Economics coverage of Stanford professor John Taylor's (not exactly glowing) review of recent Federal Reserve action, delivered at this year's annual meeting of the American Economic Association:

"The Fed has launched nearly a dozen new programs in the past year to address the crisis. Its strategy is to target specific markets in distress—from commercial paper to asset backed securities to money market mutual funds and stresses overseas—with programs tailored to their problems. It also has gotten deeply involved in rescues of individual firms like Bear Stearns, American International Group and Citigroup.

"The Fed has funded these programs by pumping reserves into the banking system—essentially creating new money. In the process, its balance sheet has ballooned from less than $900 billion to more than $2 trillion."

The record though, as the article goes on to note, is that not all of that $2 trillion represents an increase in the money supply:

011309a

Only the blue portion of the graph above represents "pumping reserves into the banking system"—a fact that was covered pretty well in the aforementioned Econbrowser post—and in an even earlier post at News N Economics. In simple terms, the size of the Fed's balance sheet is not the same thing as the size of the monetary base (the sum of currency in circulation and reserve balances kept by banks with the Federal Reserve).

Of course, John Taylor's point was not that all of the increase in the balance sheet has amounted to pumping in reserves, just that a lot of it has, which is clearly true. But even here there may be less to the potential inflationary impact than meets the eye. In his speech at the London School of Economics earlier today, Chairman Bernanke explained:

"Some observers have expressed the concern that, by expanding its balance sheet, the Federal Reserve is effectively printing money, an action that will ultimately be inflationary. The Fed's lending activities have indeed resulted in a large increase in the excess reserves held by banks. Bank reserves, together with currency, make up the narrowest definition of money, the monetary base; as you would expect, this measure of money has risen significantly as the Fed's balance sheet has expanded. However, banks are choosing to leave the great bulk of their excess reserves idle, in most cases on deposit with the Fed. Consequently, the rates of growth of broader monetary aggregates, such as M1 and M2, have been much lower than that of the monetary base."

Last week Greg Mankiw had a nifty graph (courtesy of Professor Bill Seyfried of Rollins College) of the so-called money multiplier precisely illustrating the point:

011309b

The money multiplier measures the amount of money in the hands of the public—the M1 measure in this case, which is composed mainly of cash and demand deposits (i.e., checking and debit accounts)—that are created by a dollar of monetary base. That amount fell considerably when the Fed introduced the payment of interest on bank reserves.

That said, despite the fall in the money multiplier, the M1 measure of money has also expanded fairly noticeably since late summer:

011309c
(Note: This chart replaces the original chart in the blog posting on 1/13/09, which had a mislabeled left axis.)

The increase in M2—a slightly broader measure of money that adds to M1 items like savings accounts and time deposits—has been somewhat slower but still on the rise:

011309d
(Note: This chart replaces the original chart in the blog posting on 1/13/09, which had a mislabeled left axis.)

From December 2007 through August of last year, M1 and M2 grew by about 1.2 percent and 3.9 percent respectively. Since September—after which the rapid expansion of the Fed's balance sheet began and the Fed began to pay interest on reserves—the corresponding growth rates have been 13.4 percent and 5.9 percent.

Are those growth rates substantial? That is a tricky question—whether a particular growth rate of money is substantial or not can only be determined in relation to the pace of money demand (which has almost certainly accelerated as interest rates have fallen and the taste for safe and liquid assets risen). But I take two lessons from our early experience with the asset-oriented policies emphasized in the Bernanke and Lockhart speeches. First, expansions of the balance sheet need not imply expansions of the money supply. Furthermore, as Chairman Bernanke emphasized, the Fed has the capacity to contract reserves going forward:

"… the Treasury could resume its recent practice of issuing supplementary financing bills and placing the funds with the Federal Reserve; the issuance of these bills effectively drains reserves from the banking system, improving monetary control. Longer-term assets can be financed through repurchase agreements and other methods, which also drain reserves from the system."

The second lesson, clear in the M1 and M2 charts above, is that despite the payment of interest on reserves and near-zero federal funds rates, it is still possible to induce increases in the broad money supply through the standard channel of injecting reserves into the banking system.

Whatever direction you think the money supply ought to go, these observations should come as comforting news.

By David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed

January 13, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Inflation | Permalink

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Several points for emphasis:

First, most of the increase in the size of the Fed’s balance sheet reflects an increase in the size of the monetary base. The primary exception has been the program of government deposits held at the Fed, which has been confirmed to be temporary, notwithstanding the option of reintroducing it at a later date.

Second, increases in the monetary base coincide with at least first order increases in broad money supply, although some of this money might be used to pay down bank credit immediately, thereby eliminating the broad money form just created. More generally, macro “deleveraging” has resulted in slower overall net growth of credit and money than would normally be the case, given such a provision of excess reserves. The collapsing “money multiplier” reflects a reduction in the usual leverage associated with excess reserve supply, because monetary policy is working uphill in an attempt to offset these forces of contraction. It is the effect of policy on the counterfactual that should be judged.

Posted by: JKH | January 14, 2009 at 07:54 AM

A more prosaic point. I think that the money stock numbers on the graphs should be trillions not billions.

Posted by: RebelEconomist | January 14, 2009 at 11:37 AM

David,

Why should we care about the direction of the M1 multiplier? Isn't the absolute level more important?

Say the Fed injects $1tr in reserves at a multiplier of 1.0, or injects $3tr in reserves at a multiplier of 0.5. Which is potentially more inflationary? I would argue the latter.

As far as demand for money balances, I'm surprised you didn't mention that GDP is contracting and that M1 growth FAR exceeds nominal GDP growth. Some might suggest this is inflationary. It is up to Bernanke and others (including your boss) to explain why its not. Further, the behavior of M1 and M2 differs markedly from that of deflationary analogies like Japan and the U.S. during the Great Depression.

Finally, it appears that the Fed is being less than honest when it talks about the difficulty of removing reserves. In the last recovery -- from a shallow recession -- the same Fed engaged in "measured pace" hand-holding until commodity prices began to go haywire. Why should one expect this next recovery to be any different when we will be: a) coming out of a deeper contraction; and b) coming out with much faster growth in broad money measures?

Posted by: David Pearson | January 14, 2009 at 11:50 AM

The discussion of the Fed's "proper" role ignores the fact that the Fed is practicing price controls (on money).

In Greenspans book, The Age of Turbulence, there's a passage on page 297 where Greenspan describes his debate with Li Peng and Greenspan told Li Peng that the US tried price controls (under Nixon) but learned that they don't work and learned not to do them.

Apparently not.

Posted by: George | January 14, 2009 at 12:13 PM

Simply put, the fed is leveraging up big time to allow the financial system leveraging down. I am curious: anyone know how much accouting capital the Fed has?

And please don't tell us that it can "easily reserve" these actions: we heard that in 2003-2004, look what that brought us.

Posted by: marie | January 14, 2009 at 03:15 PM

One of the best explanations I've ever seen.

On September 11th 2001, the FED expanded its balance sheet and I didn't hear any economist saying that US should care about inflation.

Probably this time the expansion of the balance sheet is staying for enough time so those economist that do not understand monetary policy and financial markets can worry about it.

Thanks David!

Posted by: El del 0.33% | January 14, 2009 at 11:10 PM

When Bernanke says "However, banks are choosing to leave the great bulk of their excess reserves idle, in most cases on deposit with the Fed.", surely he recognizes that only the Fed can create or destroy overall reserves in the system. Excess reserves are thus a pre-ordained number and banks can only shift around reserves from one to another.

Posted by: Mojakus | January 15, 2009 at 09:11 AM

Eh David: Care to address those comments above? It seems that your observations did not come as comforting a news as you expected .

Posted by: JAL | January 28, 2009 at 04:13 PM

Great idea, but will this work over the long run?

Posted by: Roulette_Albert | July 13, 2009 at 01:47 PM

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November 21, 2008

Thoughts on reading the October CPI

Here is what we know about the October consumer price index (CPI). The overall index declined at an annualized rate of about 11 percent for the month—it’s sharpest fall since 1947. A plunge in gasoline prices played a big part in the decline, but that isn’t the whole story. The traditional “core” CPI, which excludes food and energy prices, also declined in October (at an annualized rate of about 1 percent). This is the first decline in the core CPI since 1982.

Let me offer an opinion on what may be behind these numbers. The drop-off in consumer prices seems to have been prompted by a number of factors, including some pass-through from sharply lower commodity prices, a stronger dollar (which makes import prices cheaper), and very soft consumer spending.

But here’s what I don’t know. Is the October CPI a sign of “deflation"? (and it would appear that many of you are interested in finding an answer to this question). Before you answer the question for me, consider the following: In order to be “deflation” the decline in prices has to be sustained and broadly based. And I’m not sure I can give you much guidance on how long the decline must be in order for it to qualify as sustained, and I sure can’t tell you how broadly-based a general decline in prices is. Consider the distribution of CPI component price changes in figure 1. About one-third of the prices in the CPI market basket declined last month, which is a fairly large percentage of the index. On the other hand, about one-third of the price index was rising in excess of 3 percent last month.

Distribution of October CPI Component Price Changes

One of the things I like to consider when thinking about how “sustainable” and “general” the monthly CPI data are is to consider the behavior of the trimmed-mean estimators of the CPI. A trimmed-mean estimator is the weighted average of the CPI after some proportion of the extreme values of the index are “trimmed” away. The idea of the trimmed-mean estimator is that extreme price changes are not representative of prices in general. Moreover, there is ample evidence that the more extreme the price change, the less sustained it is likely to be.

We can trim any proportion of the data away. In fact, we can trim it all away such that only the median price change remains (this is the Cleveland Fed’s median CPI series.) Consider figure 2, which shows all the various trimmed mean estimators of the October CPI data, from a CPI that trims very little of the index to one that trims away most of the index. How much trimming provides the best perspective from which to judge how sustainable and general the monthly price data are? In the past, I’ve argued that two indicators stand out, the 16 percent trimmed-mean CPI (trimming 8 percent of the most extreme highs and 8 percent of the most extreme lows from the data) and the median CPI. I’ve highlighted these values in figure 2. While the overall CPI posted a sharp decline, the 16 percent trimmed-mean CPI posted a rather slight 0.6 percent decline, and the median CPI rose 1.8 percent.

Trimmed Mean Estimators (Oct 2008)

But, admittedly, knowing which trim of the data best represents how sustainable and general a monthly price report is, is not very clear. So let me offer up a range for you to consider: the interquartile range of the trimmed-mean estimators. An interquartile range is merely the spread between the 75th and the 25th percentile of the estimators. As such, it provides a relatively stable spread of the estimators from which to gauge the range over which prices are “generally” rising (or falling.) Figure 3 shows the interquartile range of the various CPI trimmed-mean estimators monthly since 2004 compared to the traditional core CPI. The interquartile range of the October CPI data is from 0.5 percent to 1.5 percent, shown as the last vertical line in figure 3, and 1.5 percentage points above the core measure.

Core CPI and the Interquartile Range of Trimmed-Mean Estimators

So when the boss asks me what I thought of the October CPI report and what does that single number tell us about inflation (or deflation), my answer is this: The overall and the core CPI posted declines for the month and clearly there is significant, rather broadly based downward pressure on retail prices. But as I cut the data, it looks to me that the October CPI data is pointing to an inflation rate somewhere in the 0.5 percent to 1.5 percent range.

By Mike Bryan, vice president in the Atlanta Fed’s research department

November 21, 2008 in Data Releases, Inflation | Permalink

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Mike,

Inflation (and deflation) is a monetary phenomenon. Price changes are not the cause, they are the effect. The CPI does not "point" to anything, it is a snapshot of what has happened.

Deflation = a decrease in the money supply. It has nothing to do with the CPI.

Posted by: Dirtyrottenvarmint | November 21, 2008 at 03:51 PM

Mike, RE: "In order to be “deflation” the decline in prices has to be sustained and broadly based. And I’m not sure I can give you much guidance on how long the decline must be in order for it to qualify as sustained ...."

This sounds eerily like the FED's position on the rampant inflation we witnessed over a four year period (that the FED failed to report).

Isn't it time for the FED to reconsider the efficacy of its economic monitoring & reporting methodologies?

Posted by: bailey | November 23, 2008 at 05:10 AM

Trimming the mean is just fine in average times. But it brings unnecessary smoothing to catastrophic changes and thus fails to predict horrific (3 or more sigma) outcomes until it is too late.

Consider the danger of trimming the mean of a series of plunging barometric readings just before a hurricane. You will miss the whole picture before it is too late to avoid catastrophic damage.

The absolute, complete and total collapse in consumer demand worldwide corresponds to the collapse in barometric pressure just before a tornado.

Where the deflationary tornadoes will touch down is difficult to predict. But they are highly likely.

I couldn't believe it when I read the entire FOMC minutes for October. There is NO governor who comprehends the imminence and magnitude of the deflation risk we face.

I am fully persuaded that we will have at least a 7 percent price drop year over year; yet no Governor agreed with that.

One of the reasons is because of "trimming the mean" and other statistical techniques that assume that our outcomes and growth generally follow Gaussian distributions.

We are not reverting to the mean any time soon.

Matt Dubuque

Posted by: Matt Dubuque | November 24, 2008 at 10:25 PM

Dirtyrottenvarmint, the definition of deflation and inflation is open to debate, of course, but you can't blast Mike for using the words in the way they are curretly used most widely. If you want to talk about monetary deflation, I recommend that you qualify it with just the adjective "monetary" and speak of Mike's deflation as "price deflation".

That said, I agree with you that we have been living in a monetary deflation for some months now, and it seems only a question of time until price deflation follows.

Posted by: Peter T | November 24, 2008 at 11:29 PM

To decide on a useful definition of "deflation", you need first to ask what you plan to use it for. In the current context, deflation matters because deflation causes expected deflation, which causes real interest rates to increase (at the zero lower bound on nominal rates) which reduces the demand for newly produced goods and services, which causes a recession and more deflation.

So define "deflation" as falling prices of an index of newly produced goods (consumption and investment) weighted by interest elasticity of demand as well as composition of GDP.

Posted by: Nick Rowe | November 25, 2008 at 06:56 PM

I would like to second what Matt Dubuque said in his comment. Trimmed means are probably good predictors in average times because the CPI series is highly autoregressive. CPI is most likely to be similar to what it was last month and getting rid of some of the extreme portions of the price index enhances the CPIs predictive capability.

I think we all agree that these aren't normal times. The markets and our entire economy appear to be suffering severe dislocations which I would compare to the hysteresis of a phase transition. We'll eventually revert to a new stable period, but during the dislocation normal predictors are going to be less useful than in stable times. Given the giant debt binge the country has engaged in, and the massive federal interventions in all phases of the financial system, I would predict very unusual fluctuations in the CPI over the next few years. Tough times ahead for those piloting the monetary ship of state.

Posted by: uber_snotling | November 25, 2008 at 07:28 PM

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September 02, 2008

Does the GDP deflator lie?

Though last week’s report on U.S. gross domestic product (GDP) growth in the second quarter is second-hand news by now, I’ve taken note that Barry Ritholtz’s views on the news has, in particular, continued to rumble through the blogosphere. Barry is not happy with the GDP deflator, and samples approvingly from a Barron’s article by Aaron Abelson:

“GDP, in common parlance, stands for gross domestic product, or the aggregate value of all the goods and services produced on these blessed shores... These days, alas, those initials more typically signify “gross deceptive pap”...

“Comes now the so-called preliminary estimate that claims second-quarter GDP grew by a much more robust 3.3%.

“The key here is the GDP deflator, which purports to adjust GDP for the impact of inflation; it’s a curious calculation in that, contrary to its moniker, it seems designed to do the exact opposite of deflating GDP.

“Thus, according to this accommodating measure (accommodating, that is, if you’re determined to put a good face on a dreary report), inflation grew at an improbably restrained 1.33% in April-June. And maybe it did—but not in the good old U.S. of A. However, obviously more important than accuracy to those doing the calculating is this simple equation: The lower the deflator, the greater the growth of GDP…

“Of course, even by the government’s not entirely extravagant figuring, the consumer price index was up a hefty 8% in the latest quarter. Perhaps the computer that tallies the CPI doesn’t talk to the computer that measures the deflator.”

Strong words, but if you ask me, misguided. Barry actually makes the case against the case in this picture, about which he notes:

Consumer Price Index Year-Over-Year % Change

“It’s no coincidence that the current situation resembles past ones where oil prices had spiked. Since more than half of the U.S. Crude consumption is imported, the price and quantity go into all GDP calculations as a negative.”

Exactly. Let me provide an elaboration of the spot-on point made at The visible hand in economics blog. For the sake of argument assume that every drop of oil consumed in the United States is imported, and everything imported to the United States is oil. If we leave exports out of the picture for simplicity, we can think of U.S. consumption as consisting of GDP—everything produced in the United States—and imported oil.

Suppose, then, that the price of oil rises precipitously. If both incomes and oil consumption are relatively fixed in the short-run, what would we expect to happen? The answer is more expenditure on imported oil and less spending on everything else. As the demand for domestically produced goods and services falls, so would their prices. (Or more generally, they would rise at a slower than normal pace.) Since domestically produced goods and services by definition constitute GDP, GDP-deflator inflation will be low, while the consumer price index (which would include nonexported GDP plus imports) could well be quite high.

Voila! A simple Econ-101 explanation, with nary an insult hurled at the good folks from the Bureau of Economic Analysis.

That said, there are plenty of reasons to be cautious in interpreting last week’s report. Mark Thoma has a fine roundup of many fine points by many fine bloggers. To that list I’d add comments by Spencer at Angry Bear, William Polley, Lim at The Skeptical Speculator, Ben Leeson at Working Thoughts, Zubin Jelveh and Felix Salmon (both at Portfolio.com), to name a few. But I would delete the suspicion that low GDP-deflator-based inflation suggests shenanigans are afoot.

September 2, 2008 in Data Releases, Inflation | Permalink

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» The GDP Deflator and the Inflation Rate from Economist's View
There is confusion between the GDP deflator and other measures of prices such as the CPI and the PCE deflator. Here's one way to think about it that might help to clear things up. The CPI (or the PCE) attempts [Read More]

Tracked on Sep 3, 2008 7:04:58 PM

» Taking a Closer look at Other 3 % GDPs from The Big Picture
Over the years, I have criticized a variety of official data points as misleading: Consumer Price Index (CPI) for woefully understating price increases, Non Farm Payrolls (NFP) due to the Birth/Death Adjustment, Core Inflation for omitting anything goi... [Read More]

Tracked on Sep 4, 2008 7:44:13 AM

» Borrowing future growth from Newshoggers.com
By Fester: Today's employment and unemployment numbers were ugly. The unemployment rate went to 6.1%, another 84,000 jobs were cut in the initial August estimates after the July estimate was increased to a job loss of 100,000 jobs, and wage [Read More]

Tracked on Sep 5, 2008 3:21:21 PM

Comments

What I like about this explanation is that it also explains what's going on with the puzzle of slow GDP growth in Canada. The story is the same, but with the signs reversed.

Posted by: Stephen Gordon | September 02, 2008 at 06:31 PM

>Voila! A simple Econ-101 explanation

Aha! that means that is has no relation to the real world, like most "simple Econ-101 explanations" ...

Posted by: Marcello | September 02, 2008 at 08:33 PM

OK, I follow your argument. But it still seems too low. It is much lower than the core inflation numbers being reported which strip out food and energy. Add food back in and I bet it is north of 3%. What's the explanation for this?

Posted by: pclema | September 02, 2008 at 08:35 PM

Having seen the discussion on Barry Ritholtz’s series of posts, I agree with your conclusion here. You’ve described a scenario in which import inflation results in downward pricing pressure on domestic output and the deflator. A variation on this scenario is one in which import inflation at the margin adds to the current account deficit, with no change in the pricing of domestic value added or in domestic income, and no net effect on the deflator. This would still explain a deflator level that was persistently lower than an inflation rate that incorporated import prices.

These scenarios are variations on the same relative pricing effect. In either case, one can compare the difference between the deflator and some broader measure of consumer prices, such as the CPI, the latter which would include the price effect of embedded and directly purchased imports. The difference between the two is the degree to which there is downward pricing pressure on the deflator itself. Either way, the spread between the deflator and the more import inclusive measure of inflation widens.

The GDP deflator calculates price changes for domestic production, while broader inflation measures such as CPI capture domestic consumption. Both are sensitive to the treatment of imports and exports. The most evident difficulty in interpreting the deflator versus alternative measures has to do with these international elements.

A common objection is that the GDP deflator, because of its currently depressed level, doesn’t impress the “man (or woman) on the street”, who is seeing and experiencing a much higher headline CPI number.

The further inference is that the number or “the model” must be wrong. Add to this protest the other issues that are perennial fodder for the inflation measurement debate, and the discussion becomes a bit of a mess. And finally, for additional density, add conspiracy notions to the mix.

The irony is that the GDP deflator shouldn’t be that interesting to the typical consumer, who won’t be so curious about the price of goods that the US is selling overseas. But that person, if she does pay attention to this number, should know it excludes changes in import prices as embedded in final purchases. At the same time, she would want to know if such import price changes are being passed on, absorbed, or accentuated by the final product pricing of domestic vendors.

The GDP deflator is a complicated measure, in that it includes foreign exposure to US generated inflation, while excluding direct US exposure to foreign generated inflation. The typical consumer (or blogger), should probably approach its interpretation carefully, with this in mind.

At the same time, it should help the average consumer to know that alternative measures of inflation are available that are more indicative of price behaviour within their immediate experience. And if they are interested in the GDP deflator, they should read up on it at professional economic sites such as this, knowing that the explanation will be measured and correct.

Posted by: JKH | September 02, 2008 at 10:34 PM

I just had a very similar post about GDP chain deflator in my blog last week. You can check if you want, link is in my name.

Posted by: Andy Bebut | September 02, 2008 at 11:53 PM

Lie is the wrong word -- my question is, does GDP present an accurate portrayal of economic reality?

The short answer last quarter was no.

My take is that 3.3% in Q2 is very misleading -- and the guilty culprit is the deflator, a misnomer last quarter, as it served to INFLATE GDP data.

Note that this is not a conspiracy theory, but rather a critique of a model that does a mediocre job in portraying the economy . . .


Posted by: Barry Ritholtz | September 03, 2008 at 06:53 AM

"...As the demand for domestically produced goods and services falls, so would their prices. (Or more generally, they would rise at a slower than normal pace.)..."

really?

that´s the same old fed rhetoric that justified the wave of rate cuts.

over the last year demand DID fall and prices DID rise as companies pass higher costs to protect their margins.

so far the text book of economics didn´t work.

Posted by: GreenAB | September 03, 2008 at 07:33 AM

Is it not simple quantitative analysis? The import deflator of -4.56% overwhelmed the PCE, Investment, Export and Government deflators of 2.93%, 0.11%, 1.37% and 0.98%, respectively.

BEA Table 1.1.8

Posted by: marmico | September 03, 2008 at 08:40 AM

Better to look at the deflator for Final Sales to Domestic Purchasers. This measures what people (and businesses) BUY, not what they produce. For 2Q08 it ran 4.3%. Makes one wonder about 2% Fed Funds and Treasuries under 5%!

Posted by: Doug | September 03, 2008 at 10:03 AM

I love economics, and that's why I read posts like this. But aren't Econ 101 explanations (deliberately) grossly simplified? I think the real world flaw in this explanation is the assumption that oil is solely a consumer ready commodity. Doesn't the rise in the price of imported oil affect domestically produced goods because oil is an input? Shouldn't the deflator be higher to account for this fact? If we're using nominal prices for output, I don't understand how the rise in a critical input like oil shouldn't make the deflator pretty high right now. This is not a conspiracy theory but goes to Barry's point that the headline number is ridiculous in the context of the real world we all inhabit.

Posted by: anon | September 03, 2008 at 12:46 PM

I just posted on this. Wish I had seen this yesterday...

Posted by: David Merkel | September 03, 2008 at 02:24 PM

The other dimension to this is that the GDP deflator also includes the price of residential investment, which has been falling in line with the OFHEO house price index.

In fact, there's a good argument to be made that the GDP deflator overstated inflation in Q2 because the BEA insists on basing that residential investment deflator on the OFHEO index rather than the Case-Shiller index. The latter suggests house prices have been falling much more sharply. If the BEA used the Case-Shiller index instead, the GDP deflator might have turned out to be negative.

Posted by: Anon | September 03, 2008 at 04:21 PM

The average person doesn't and shouldn't care about the GDP, nor should the press or any organization push it as a measure of economic health. The GDP can rise by 10% and it wouldn't mean a darn thing to someone buying milk at $5.50 a gallon. Real world economics is a whole different ball game. You have to look at prices on the streets.

Posted by: John Brock | September 03, 2008 at 04:56 PM

it would be more proper to state that if the price of one good (like oil) increases sharply, due to for instance, a supply shortage, and the money supply stays stable at the same time, then prices for other goods elsewhere in the economy would have to fall to balance the price rise in oil out. unfortunately this simple model doesn't work in the real world either, because the money supply is anything but stable. what is commonly referred to as 'inflation' is better called 'rising prices' as it is really only the effect of inflation (inflation of money and credit), and this effect tends to arrive with a considerable lag, as newly printed money is obviously not received by all participants in the economy at the same time. it feels downright odd to have to point this out, but inflation is a monetary phenomenon. in the meantime, as regards GDP , it is a pretty useless number for a great many reasons. Sean Corrigan wrote (a by now somewhat dated, but still pertinent) article on the 'anatomy of growth' that looks at this in some detail. link:
http://mises.org/story/1491

Posted by: pater tenebrarum | September 03, 2008 at 10:37 PM

Is it fair to extrapolate from this argument that U.S. companies have virtually no pricing power for domestically produced goods and services? It seems to me that this is a recipe for razor thin domestic operating margins. Are U.S. companies generally applying the airline model, whereby companies are trying to make up for negative margins through volume growth? Uh oh.

Posted by: Adam Butler | September 04, 2008 at 08:28 AM

That was a technical explanation of how it is calculated. It doesn't change the fact that the number does not reflect how strong or weak the economy is. It is simply not credible to assert 3+% economic growth when employment and real wages are falling an corporate profits at the same time is plummeting.

Posted by: Stefan Karlsson | September 04, 2008 at 09:49 AM

Hmmm, Here's an interesting observation:
“The current crisis has revealed fundamental shortcomings in the prevailing credit arrangement,” exposing weaknesses that will “require significant institutional change in both the public and the private sectors,” said Terrence Checki, executive vice president of the New York Federal Reserve."

Posted by: bailey | September 04, 2008 at 10:03 AM

Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco President Janet Yellen said in a speech today that the economy's acceleration to a 3.3 percent growth rate in Q2-08 "is likely to prove ephemeral". Indeed, years from now we will look back at this Q2-08 GDP datapoint as an outlier to what is commonly inferred by GDP. The reality of the revised report is that Net Export contributed 3.1% of the 3.3% Q2 GDP number. The real growth rate of export was revised to contribute 1.65% from 1.16%, and the real growth rate of import was revised downward so as to contribute 1.45% from 1.26%. As such, the large impact net export had on the final GDP number reveals substantial weakness in domestic demand and hence the comments provided by others responding to this topic. The question Dave, Janet and the others at the Fed have to be asking themselves is if this export effect on GDP is likely to continue. The answer lies in one's belief about the strength of the largest US export economies, coupled with one's belief about the current rally in the US dollar. If the dollar rally is a temporary aberration, and the economies of Canada, Europe and Mexico are believed to escape the world's current economic malaise, then Q2 GDP won't seem so odd. However, if the dollar rally is sustained and the G7 economies tip into recession, this Q2 GDP number will soon be forgotten. Ms. Yellen went on today to say, "My forecast is for sluggish growth in the second half of this year with substantial downside risks." At this point, that seems a rational bet.

Posted by: Ken | September 04, 2008 at 05:52 PM

Even more pronounced difference happened in Slovakia in 4q07, when deflator was negative, even though the consumer prices rose by more than 4%. The nominal GDP growth was thus at around 11%, and real at 14.3% :)

Posted by: Michal Lehuta | September 05, 2008 at 10:32 AM

Your mindframe is still based on closed systems. That doesn't apply any more and leads to the faulty logic you once again show here.
Prices do not magically fall or fail to rise, because internal demand is faltering. Maybe the price in the barbershop. But nearly everything else today is tradeable, including services of course.
Prices of tradeables are not determined by internal demand. This is why your explanation is just horrific economics.Actually it's a shame.

Posted by: jboss | September 05, 2008 at 10:46 AM

The contentious issue was whether Q2 real GDP growth could be explained rationally. The debate was between those who could explain it rationally, and those who believe its a failure in "the model", due to the low level of the GDP deflator. My view is that the rational explainers win the debate, as presented here.

An entirely separate issue is whether Q2 real growth is sustainable. This is addressed in the Yellin speech.

The first issue has nothing to do with second.

But I fully expect that those who have rejected the Q2 number on the basis of the first argument will come back in Q3 and claim victory using evidence on the second.

Posted by: anon | September 05, 2008 at 10:47 AM

With regard to Anon's comment: According to Wikipedia (not the final authority on such things, but certainly a reasonable source for general interpretation in this context), "GDP is widely used by economists to gauge the health of an economy". If the debate in this topic is over the rationality of the Q2 GDP explanation, and as Anon has done, we accept that explanation as rational, then we must also conclude the Q2 GDP value as being indicative of the health of the economy in Q2 (based on the Wikipedia definition). So which of the following statements is most true for you:

1. I accept the GDP model works perfectly providing me with an exceptional insight into the health of the economy in Q2, and therefore will base by business investment decisions going forward on the fact that the trend in economic growth turned the corner in Q2.

or...

2. Q2 GDP is a number that I find to be an outlier one-time event, particularly in light of the weak GDI and it provides little insight into the overall health of the economy. As such, I don't necessarily find the GDP model to be broken, but I will likely not alter my business investment decisions based upon this single number.

Distilled: a meaningful debate should be over if the Q2 GDP number the model produced was valuable in providing us with a guage of the economy's health and will alter business investment as a trend altering event going forward; or if in retrospect we will soon come to view the Q2 GDP number the model produced as an outlier.

Posted by: Ken | September 05, 2008 at 05:05 PM

Re: Ken’s comment from September 05, 2008 at 05:05 PM

Proposing a “meaningful debate” is fair enough, but the main post addresses a false line of argument that rejects the validity of the GDP result. This false argument impedes a more meaningful economic analysis of GDP results. The contrast is noted in the final paragraph of the post.

With respect to the questions posed, business decisions shouldn’t be based on a retrospective view of the economy. One needs to look deeper than an ex post quarterly GDP measure to investigate the probable path for future readings. The post concludes by pointing to forward looking analyses beyond the Q2 result. Most acknowledge that most of the growth was due to net exports, and question the sustainability of that factor.

And the accuracy of a particular GDP reading shouldn’t be confused with a legitimate difference between trend and volatility. Conversely, volatility doesn’t prove measurement inaccuracy.

This brings us back to the blogging case made against the veracity of Q2 GDP growth. The most aggressive version goes something like this:

a) The high level of the Q2 import deflator has artificially depressed the GDP deflator
b) The low level of the GDP deflator is not representative of “reality”
c) The low level of the GDP deflator has artificially boosted Q2 real GDP
d) Q2 real GDP is not representative of “reality”

Each of these is wrong. The first contradicts the factual definitions that determine the various GDP equations. The second confuses the deflator with competing consumption oriented measures such as CPI. The third further ignores definitional relationships. And the fourth is a summary conclusion supported by the additional general evidence of “gut feel”.

These erroneous contentions fail to consider Q2 net exports, which provided the largest sector contribution to Q2 GDP growth. Net exports constitute the least observable GDP component from the perspective of those who focus on domestic consumption/inflation, while ignoring the definition of GDP and the GDP deflator.

The difference between GDP and GDI is a valid measurement issue.

None of this means that Q2 GDP won’t be revised lower. Nor does it mean that Q3 GDP can’t be lower, or that import inflation can’t be lower, or that the deflator can’t be higher. To suggest that Q2 real GDP is not indicative of a trend is entirely reasonable. But it is a fraudulent distortion to suggest it is not so because the low reading on the GDP deflator has somehow “inflated” real GDP.

(Janet Yellen’s recent speech, as excerpted by Ken above, includes the reasonable prognosis of weaker GDP following the Q2 result. But in no way does it contradict the Q2 measure per se.)

Posted by: anon | September 08, 2008 at 06:19 AM

Re: Anon's 9/8/2008 6:19 a.m. comment

We are debating two seperate issues. The first is the validity of the measurement. For this I have no disagreement with what Anon or Dave have argued. They are in my view, absolutely correct. The subject of this post I didn't believe was to limit the debate to simply the validity of the measurement, but rather more to the point was the issue of people being so dumbfounded by the value that they were willing to believe fraud was the source. To debate the measurement is one debate. To debate the extraordinary implication of the value is another. I was addressing the later rather than the former. For further reading on this part of the debate, Caroline Baum has a great article on Bloomberg this morning titled, "Output Without Income Is Like a 'Virgin Birth'. It addresses the lack of GDI in the face of roaring GDP. She sources a study by Fed economist Jeremy Nalewaik that suggests "real time GDI has done a substantially better job recognizing the start of the last several recessions than has real time GDP". While perhaps others are not so inclined, there are times when I believe GDP does not give us sound information about the health of the economy. Q2-08 was one of those times.

Posted by: Ken | September 08, 2008 at 12:09 PM

Re: Ken’s 9/8/2008 12:09 p.m. comment

I don’t disagree. The number may well be questionable for several reasons. The GDI disconnect is a legitimate source of concern. The sustainability of net export growth is another. Inventing erroneous algebraic inferences within the GDP equations is not.

Posted by: anon | September 09, 2008 at 07:06 AM

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August 28, 2008

Monitoring the inflation bees, striving not to get stung

As pure blogging fodder, Willem Buiter’s Jackson Hole “advice” to the Fed is a gift that keeps on giving. From Buiter’s paper:

“It has not always been clear whether the Fed actually targets core inflation or whether it targets headline inflation in the medium term and treats core inflation as the best predictor of medium-term inflation.”

As luck would have it, our boss (Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta President Dennis Lockhart) had a few words to say on exactly that topic yesterday:

“Attempts to measure the aggregate rate of price change—no matter how sophisticated—remain imperfect. As a result, when it comes to measuring inflation, judgment is needed to distinguish persistent price movements that underlie overall inflation from the relative price adjustments. Separating the inflation signal from noise involves much uncertainty—especially when making decisions in real time. Discerning accurately the underlying trend is difficult.”

The difficulty of precisely “separating the inflation signal from the noise” is not a new problem. In fact, this difficulty can be traced at least as far back as the development of index numbers to measure economic aggregates—and aggregate inflation in particular—by the famous economist Irving Fisher. Fisher struggled with the idea of being able to separate out the general movement in prices from the relative price disturbances:

“It would be idle to expect a uniform movement in prices as to expect a uniform movement for bees in a swarm. On the other hand, it would be as idle to deny the existence of a general movement of prices ... as to deny a general movement of a swarm of bees because the individual bees have different movements.”

The distinction between the direction of the swarm and the individual bees is an important one that is the direct path to discussions of measures of “core” inflation. The conceptual issues were nicely articulated in a recent article by Dallas Fed economist Mark Wynne, and they go something like this: Suppose we thought of the percent changes in prices of individual goods and services between two periods as containing a common component (core) and price changes that are unique to the supply and demand conditions of a particular products markets. The object of our desire (the honey if you like) is the level and direction of the common component. The problem is how to measure it.

In his commentary on the “will-o’-the-wisp of ‘core’ inflation,” Professor Buiter decides on a selective concept of core:

“The only measure of core inflation I shall discuss is the one used by the Fed, that is the inflation rate of the standard headline CPI or PCE deflator excluding food and energy prices. Other approaches to measuring core inflation… will not be considered.”

We added the emphasis because we want to contrast that comment with these words from President Lockhart’s speech:

“It is essential for those of us who have responsibility for responding to these trends to use a wide variety of core measures and inflation projections to make the most informed judgment we can.”

The variety of core measures is in fact wide. Some are familiar—the traditional statistics that exclude food and energy prices, the Cleveland Fed median CPI, and the Dallas Fed trimmed-mean PCE are examples. Some important, but less familiar, measures focus on persistence over time in individual price changes and exploit correlation over time in the common and product-specific components. Work by Michael Bryan and Steven Cecchetti and Domenico Giannone and Tyler Matheson  are examples.  An alternative approach is to define core inflation by decomposing headline inflation measures into permanent and transitory components, identifying core inflation as the permanent component. Examples include research by Jim Nason and James Stock and Mark Watson.

Michael Kiley just recently extended the Stock and Watson approach and found the common trend in inflation during the 1970s and early 1980s was attributable to persistent movements in both energy/food and nonenergy/food prices. More recently, that trend has been less influenced by food and energy inflation.

Maybe that isn’t all good news. It is noteworthy that the traditional measures of underlying trend inflation have moved higher over the past year or so, some more than others.

Consumer Price Index Year-Over-Year % Change

As President Lockhart noted at several points in his remarks yesterday:

“No matter how you measure it, the aggregate inflation we are experiencing in the United States at the moment is uncomfortably high…

“Measures of core inflation in the United States suggest that overall price pressures have been on the rise, perhaps because higher commodities costs have begun to affect prices paid by consumers and businesses across a broader range of other goods and services…

“I'm acutely aware that the current FOMC has inherited the inflation policy credibility that was hard won by our predecessors. One thing that has impressed me since taking my position last year is the seriousness with which my colleagues approach the duty to protect that legacy. I am confident that the Federal Reserve's institutional commitment to maintaining low and stable inflation will prevail.”

Professor Buiter raised several theoretical challenges to the core inflation concept that deserve discussion. It really is time, however, to lay to rest the straw-man assertion that central bankers are diverted by a pursuit of single and overly simplistic notions of core inflation.

By John Robertson, vice president in the Atlanta Fed’s research department, and David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed

August 28, 2008 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Inflation | Permalink

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Comments

Thanks for the excellent post gentlemen.

Thankfully, I am not so blind as to believe that the Fed is pursuing single and overly simplistic notions of core inflation.

I sincerely don't know how any person could read ANY of the analysis coming from the Kansas City, Cleveland, Atlanta or even Dallas Feds could come to such a conclusion. I'm simply baffled.

At any rate, I'm a little intriuged by your metaphors of bees in this post.

First, I'd like to ask if you gentlemen feel that it is appropriate to use some Wiener's work, the foundations of statistical mechanics, improving Einstein's modeling of Brownian motion.

Some have found statistical mechanics to be extraordinarily useful in modeling group behaviors containing stochastic processes.

Although I clearly am not a mathematician, my judgment is that statistical mechanics might be a very helpful supplement to vector autoregression analyses, especially if you think, as I do, that the swarming behavior of bees is a useful metaphor for modeling markets.

Any such models would then of course be supplemented by the examining the role of less-informed hornets (such as Buiter and Cramer) upon the direction of those swarms.

Secondly, can you point me to any papers that would expand the work of Nason and Stock and Watson to include migration of variables from transitory to more permanent expectations?

Although that is obviously a slippery concept, such math would attempt to model rational consumers like myself who KNEW after Volcker's Belgrade moment on October 6, 1979 that the NEXT long term trend in inflationary expectations was CLEARLY downwards and indeed that was the case for at least 29 years now.

So I would like to see the "stickiness" funtion measured of inflation expectations as well.

Please forgive my mathematical shortcomings obvious from the post. I am working sincerely and diligently to correct them.

Matt Dubuque

Posted by: Matt Dubuque | August 28, 2008 at 03:29 PM

Another way to frame what I seek is some links to quantitative analyses describing how the anchoring of inflation expectations changes over time, and why.

Thanks for the good work,

Matt Dubuque

Posted by: Matt Dubuque | August 28, 2008 at 05:35 PM

I'm not sure I understand why measuring the movement of the swarm of bees is of much practical use. In keeping with the agricultural analogies, to help illustrate my point; isn't measuring the swarm's movement akin to measuring the cows that have run out of the barn after the barn door was left open? It doesn't get us to the answer of how to keep the barn door shut, or how to keep the swarm from moving in one direction or another. Rather, measuring movements of the swarm simply tells us a problem is already occurring. There is nothing in this proposed excercise that allows us to stop the swarm from moving once it is in motion. In fact, the tools we have to stop the movement of the swarm are widely believed to work with a significant time lag. It seems to me that the debate should be over what can be done to keep the swarm from moving in the first place, rather than simply measuring it once it is already in motion. Said another way, should we not be focused on keeping the barn door shut rather than simply counting cows? Professor Friedman taught us how to do this, and Professor Taylor refined the approach into something quantifiable. Still, we avoid their lessons and somehow are focused on counting cows. I just don't understand the practical implications of this debate.

Posted by: Ken | August 29, 2008 at 11:56 AM

For me, the practical implications of this debate are how do we learn about and model differential inflationary expectations among consumers that "swarm" and aggregate around certain points and means, and co-vary in different ways.

Increased inflationary expectations feed through directly into elevated "real" interest rates that are so harmful to us all. Nobody wants this and our goal to faithfully fulfill the mandate of the Fed is not at issue.

In terms of modeling swarms of bees (and the math behind this can be quite sophisticated and is used by Google in server allocation planning in cloud computing scenarios, for example) the DIRECTIONALITY of the swarm (up or down) can be modeled with these tools.

Surely inflationary expectations can COLLAPSE as well as rise.

If the Fed DRAMATICALLY (and inexplicably) raised the target for the Fed funds rate to 36% tomorrow morning while simultaneously taking several other highly restrictive steps, surely inflationary expectations would collapse.

Inflationary expectations can BOTH rise and fall.

Bee swarms can also RISE and FALL.

Cows only move in two dimensions, within a planar topological space as it were.

ALL OTHER THINGS BEING EQUAL, adding another dimension to these analyses can make our tools more powerful.

Mathematics did not stop progressing in the 1960s, when Friedman published his best work. Fast Fourier transforms are probably the most obvious example of this to the lay person.

Why should we unduly halt new analytical frameworks with higher granularity from better informing our decisions and judgments?

Medical science has certainly adopted some of these new tools and so has the National Security Agency.

Let's not condemn the Fed to analytical tools that are becoming increasingly blunt instruments in this noisy and deregulated banking environment.

Matt Dubuque

Posted by: Matt Dubuque | August 29, 2008 at 06:03 PM

"It really is time, however, to lay to rest the straw-man assertion that central bankers are diverted by a pursuit of single and overly simplistic notions of core inflation."
As one of the 14 or so "strawmen" savers remaining, let me respond: NONSENSE, UTTER NONSENSE!
Welcome back, Dave A.

Posted by: Bailey | August 30, 2008 at 11:55 AM

Hello,

Just wanted to let you know, US month to month CPI/ Core CPI as well as annual CPI can be found under Prices and Indices tab in FXEconoStats (http://www.fxeconostats.com)
In case you want to compare CPI across multiple countries check the comparative charts section.

Posted by: Sogol | September 19, 2008 at 10:20 AM

I have to agree with Bailey, I don't think there are significant advantages to waiting around for your savings to mature.

Posted by: Mike J. Riley | November 07, 2008 at 05:09 AM

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