October 13, 2009
Reviewing the recession: Was monetary policy to blame?
Reviewing the Recession: Was Monetary Policy to Blame?
In a recent speech given at the University of South Alabama, Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta President Dennis Lockhart added his voice to what is now the general consensus: "I agree with all who are declaring that a technical recovery is under way."
There is still much work to be done, of course, not least the continuing examination of just what led to the recession and how a repeat performance can be avoided. One theme of this examination appeared in last week's Financial Times:
"It is certainly true that the most recent bubble, its bursting and the Fed's actions in the aftermath have inspired existing critics and recruited new ones. The first charge is that interest rates under Alan Greenspan, [current Fed Chairman Ben] Bernanke's predecessor, were kept too low for too long, contributing to a bubble of easy credit."
Here is an exercise that that I find intriguing. Suppose we try to estimate, as closely as we can, the actual interest rate decisions of the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) over the period spanning the beginning of Greenspan's tenure to the present. It turns out that by using an approach based not only on measures of inflation and actual output relative to potential but also on the lagged fed funds rate, you can actually get pretty darn close to statistically describing what the FOMC did:
I'm going to resist the temptation to call this approach a "Taylor rule." The estimating "rule" used here does in fact include realizations of inflation and a measure of the output gap (that is, a measure of how different gross domestic product is from its potential). These are the essential ingredients of the Taylor rule, but not the source of the close fit evident in the chart above. Over the period covered by the chart, you could have done a pretty good job mimicking the actual federal funds rate outcomes in any given month using knowledge of the previous month's rate. (If you are interested in the details of the estimating rule, you can find them here.)
The interpretation of the tendency for today's federal funds rate to generally follow yesterday's rate—sometimes referred to as interest rate smoothing—is controversial. Glenn Rudebusch (from the Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco) explains:
"Many interpret estimated monetary policy rules as suggesting that central banks conduct very sluggish partial adjustment of short-term policy interest rates. In contrast, others argue that this appearance of policy inertia is an illusion and simply reflects the spurious omission of important persistent influences on the actual setting of policy."
Rudebusch is decidedly in the second camp, but for our purposes here the exact interpretation may not be that important. Though I am glossing over some not insignificant caveats—such as the difference between final data and the information the FOMC had to react to in real time—the chart above suggests that whatever the underlying structure of policy decisions, after the fact the FOMC appears to have behaved in an extraordinarily consistent way over the period extending from the late 1980s. This observation, in turn, suggests to me that there was nothing all that unusual about monetary policy in 2003 once you account for the state of the economy.
Which leads me to my main point on the chart above: If you are of the opinion that interest rate policy was good through the late 1980s and 1990s, then there seems to be a good case the FOMC was just sticking with "proven" success as it set interest rates through the dawning of the new millennium.
There is, of course, the possibility that the pattern of the funds rate depicted in the chart above was incomplete all along in the sense that whatever variables are explicit and implicit in the estimated rule, they did not include information to which the FOMC should have responded. In calmer times, the story would go, not including potentially pertinent information was not much of a problem. Eventually the missing-data chickens could come home to roost. The prime omitted variable suspect would, of course, be some sort of asset prices.
Scratch any gathering of macroeconomists these days and out will bleed a steady stream directed at incorporating credit and financial market activity into thinking about the aggregate economy. The necessity of proceeding with that work was emphasized by no less an authority than Don Kohn, vice chairman of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors, speaking at just such a gathering of macroeconomists last week:
"It is fair to say, however, that the core macroeconomic modeling framework used at the Federal Reserve and other central banks around the world has included, at best, only a limited role for the balance sheets of households and firms, credit provision, and financial intermediation. The features suggested by the literature on the role of credit in the transmission of policy have not yet become prominent ingredients in models used at central banks or in much academic research."
I will admit that economists were not exactly ahead of the curve with this agenda, but prior to 2007 it was not at all clear that detailed descriptions of how funds moved from lenders to borrowers or how short-term interest rates are transmitted to longer-term interest rates and capital accumulation decisions were crucial to getting monetary policy right. Models without such detail tended to deliver policy decisions not far from the sort depicted above, and, as I noted, they seemed to be working quite well in terms of macroeconomic outcomes.
Thus far, one of the lessons from models in which financial intermediation is taken seriously is that interest rate spreads or stock prices or other asset prices do become part of the policy rate recipe. Your response might well be something along the lines of "duh." You are entitled to that opinion, and I won't push back too hard. But it is yet far from clear that the financial crisis can be explained by a misstep in the setting of the federal funds rate caused by the failure to make whatever adjustments might have been indicated by the inclusion of pertinent financial variables in implicit rate-setting rules of thumb. Furthermore, early versions of research I have seen that combines capital regulation policy and interest rate policy suggest that the macroeconomic consequences of getting the former wrong may be much greater than the consequences of getting the latter wrong. To me, that conclusion has the ring of truth.
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed
October 13, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Monetary Policy | Permalink
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Posted by:
flow5 |
October 13, 2009 at 02:21 PM
David,
The graph is very intriguing. One question I have is what inflation measures are being used. If one had substituted the Case-Shiller index of home prices for the Owner's equivalent rent part of the CPI, would that significantly change the resultant interest rates?
If the inflation metrics used to set policy aren't adequately representing true inflation, then the prescribed policy response as set by the so-called rule may also be wrong.
Posted by:
uber_snotling |
October 13, 2009 at 02:33 PM
At what point does coming up with a myriad of form fitting Taylor rules just look like Butter in Bangladesh (datamining)? Why does the fact that there exists some mechanical rule amidst many possible ex ante formulations which renders all Fed policy consistent provide information whether that is a meaningful consistency? I can't help but wonder if we could come up with a seemingly relevant Taylor-type formula that would fit almost any pattern of random Fed Funds rates. Of course, I also don't think deviating from one of these supposedly tight-fit rules like the actual Taylor is likewise great evidence that the Fed made a mistake in the first place, though many seem to disagree.
Posted by:
dlr |
October 13, 2009 at 02:55 PM
The recession had as its origin the sub-prime lending crisis. Further, home prices in many US cities were being driven very high, year after year, in comparison to the CPI. However, this price growth of this one asset, residential housing, could not have occurred without the strong availability of mortgage credit. It follows that what is required is a very intense study of the sources of that mortgage credit. In the end, it is money supply, but from what origin? Interest rates alone cannot account for the availability of mortgage credit. The mortgage credit availability drove a very powerful "inflation" in one asset. The consequence of the eventual "deflation" was the dire impact on the balance sheets of the banks, as their collateral collapsed and the sure-fire real estate growth ceased and then reversed. It seems quite doubtful that the Fed by itself could have caused all of the excess mortgage credit availability. This is what must be studied, what kind of institutions made the mortgage loans and from whence came the money supply to fuel the loans. The answer is likely quite complex.
Posted by:
mme |
October 13, 2009 at 09:37 PM
David - I enjoy your posts, but I wanted to add one observation about this particular argument. I agree that a monetary policy misstep had nothing to do with the proximate cause of the current events, but some of those who criticize the Fed...of whom I am one; see my book "Maestro, My Ass"...actually are critical of the stability and forecast-ability of the rate. By leaching uncertainty from the market, the Fed enabled much greater leverage than if they had been spastic, or at least more stochastic. Your post actually demonstrates that the rate path was HIGHLY predictable (which we knew, but it's a great illustration of just how predictable), and that is in fact the main error the Fed made...not the level, but the variance.
Keep the posts coming! They are very thoughtful.
Posted by:
Mike Ashton |
October 14, 2009 at 08:01 AM
The technical appendix to your estimating rule states: "The primary difference from the original Taylor rule is the inclusion of the lagged Fed funds rate". Taylor likes to remind people that according to his understanding of his rule, the Fed funds rate became too low around the beginning of '02 and didn't catch up with his rule until sometime around '06 (see, e.g., "The Financial Crisis and the Policy Responses: An Empirical Analysis of What Went Wrong"). Your estimating rule works well as an approximation of actual interest rate decisions, so is the inclusion of the lagged Fed funds rate really making up essentially all of the difference between how well your rule works and how well Taylor's rule works?
Posted by:
Rich Fitzgerald |
October 14, 2009 at 08:32 AM
There are some other aspects to the "rates to low" argument that are essentially implicit in your "rule". For one thing we were after all entering a 2nd war while still being involved in a first in '03. Then job creation was extremely weak and didn't pick up until '03 and peaked on a YoY basis in '04, indicating a very weak recovery. Finally there is the infamous conundrum - long rates stayed low even after s.t. were raised. What else was the Fed to do - quantitative tightening? We now know (ahem) that the conundrum was based on "excess" savings in the trade surplus countries being re-cycled into the US to finance over-consumption on leveraged debt. Which by the by gets to the heart of the real criticism of Uncle Allen's last years - the failure to enforce existing regulatory regimes. In other words you are so right about which factors turn out to be important. Sadly none of this has entered the common wisdom or general discussions.
Posted by:
dblwyo |
October 14, 2009 at 09:33 AM
In my experience, the rates-were-too-low crowd can be shut up by asking two questions:
1. How much higher should rates have been? (If this doesn't stop them in their tracks completely, they will nominate something fairly moderate, say 2 percentage points. Scarily few of the people in this camp have actually thought about the answer to this question.)
2. Do you REALLY think that rates X percentage points higher would have stopped the speculative behaviour in housing and credit markets?
The Fed could not have stopped the bubble with interest rates alone. They would have had to jack rates up so far it would have killed the economy.
Posted by:
michelle color me shocked |
October 14, 2009 at 07:08 PM
I think you mean:
"The Fed COULD have stopped the bubble with interest rates, BUT they would have had to jack rates up so far it would have killed the economy."
Of course this was already baked in to the picture. Wealth cannot be created by simply increasing the money supply, the misallocation of capital that is caused by steady increases in unsound money supply always results in a in a future crisis...cause by the misallocation of capital. This is good for the banks that have implicit ability to tax the masses to socialize losses whenever they want(Goldman Sachs, JP Morgan), but it is bad for all of those who cannot(regular hard working people raising families).
Posted by:
Gabe |
October 15, 2009 at 10:13 AM
Given that the Great Recession had as one of its primary causes the government-sponsored easing of residential mortgage lending criteria over the past decade plus, I am intrigued by the statement that "...early versions of research...that combines capital regulation policy and interest rate policy suggest that the macroeconomic consequences of getting the former wrong may be much greater than the consequences of getting the latter wrong." Such research is sorely needed.
Posted by:
sts |
October 15, 2009 at 04:19 PM
No additional research is needed to understand that low rates were part of a witches brew comprised of 1) a product in high demand (houses); 2) supported by large government subsidies of for both capital formation (FHA, FNMAE, FRDMAC) and tax treatment (homeowner deduction, cap gains exclusion); 3) encouraged by trade organizations and unions (real estate and construction industry) and media advertising revenue; 4) financed by a securitization process that generated outsized profits compared to historically low risks; 5) supported by ratings agencies with explicit conflicts of interest; 6) levered by deregulated investment banks 30:1; 7) enabled by a trade deficit that generated a "virtuous recycling" of the so-called "savings glut" with our Asian trading partners; and 8) which was substantially the result of central bank currency manipulation. The question is whether this brew would have poisoned our economy had rates been higher. Clearly, low rates were a necessary but not sufficient factor. Look at that chart again: the drop from over 6 to less than 2 allowed the mortgage industry to create products that dropped the carrying cost of homes by two thirds and still left plenty of "profit" for the banks. Dropping the carrying costs by two thirds directly caused prices to more than double given all of the above factors working together.
Posted by:
Jeffrey Goodrich |
October 24, 2009 at 01:33 PM
Is it but a coincidence that the "Taylor rule" is also a concept in Calculus that allows for approximation of integrals (areas) of graphs similar to that of the Fed's interest rate changes.
Posted by:
rankpay |
October 26, 2009 at 04:00 PM
August 19, 2009
How fast can the economy grow?
The recession may be ending (and may, in fact, have ended, according to the majority of economists recently surveyed by the Wall Street Journal) but, as Friday's consumer confidence report suggests, the uncertainty about the course of future growth is far from resolved. The most recent consensus forecast from the panel assembled for the monthly Blue Chip Economic Indicators does suggest a nice bounce back into positive growth territory, bringing to an end a four-quarter run of gross domestic product (GDP) contraction.
What remains interesting, however, is the range of disagreement about just how fast the recovery will be. The upper and lower black lines in the chart above delineate the 10 most optimistic forecasts (the upper lines) and the least optimistic forecasts (the lower lines) among the Blue Chip panel's 51 economists. Most interesting is the fact that some collection of theses economists are, in any given quarter, guessing that growth will not break a 2 percent annual pace before we exit 2010.
That uncertainty is compounded by an even more consequential uncertainty, lucidly emphasized recently by Menzie Chinn (here, here, and here): How fast can we grow before straining the economy's capacity? In other words, is slow growth the best we can expect given the economy's current potential?
The output gap—the difference between the current level of GDP and estimated potential—has long been standard fare in policy analysis. Over at iMFdirect, the International Monetary Fund's blog, Ajai Chopra explains why we care:
"What would be merely a curiosity during better times—after all, potential output is a largely abstract concept measuring the level of output an economy can produce without undue strain on resources—has become a particular worry in the context of the global economic crisis…
"Right now, budget planners across Europe are scrambling to estimate the strength of the blow the crisis has dealt to public finances, and not knowing the growth potential of their economies greatly complicates their task. If they overestimate potential growth, they would underestimate the need for fiscal adjustment once the crisis has dissipated, raising thorny issues of fiscal sustainability in the longer run.
"Central bankers, too, are looking for guidance on the path of potential output. Their decision on when to start winding down current crisis policies depends on the difference between potential and actual output, the so-called output gap. If the output gap is closing faster because of a drop in potential, policymakers might decide to increase interest rates a little earlier and a little higher to prevent inflation from rising."
Economists also do not lack methods for estimating the output gap and, just in case the field is not crowded enough, Atlanta Fed economist Jim Nason has done some investigating of his own. Jim looked at a variety of statistical estimates of the output gap and arrived at what is now a pretty familiar conclusion. To wit, there is substantial variation in output gap estimates across the different methods, and I do mean substantial: The gap estimates for the second quarter of 2009 range from –0.5 to nearly –11 percent depending on which method is used. In other words, some methods imply the gap is very large, others say the gap is rather small.
I am tempted to invoke the ancient economists' chant, "noh-bah-de-noz," but real-life policymakers don't have that luxury. So we delve in the details and try to sort out what seems like the best approach. (If you have a technical bent, you can do the same with Jim's estimates by following this link.) As we sort it out, though, Ajai Chopra gives some sound advice:
"As for central bankers, they should also act on the information they have, although researchers such as Athanasios Orphanides (now Governor of the Central Bank of Cyprus and member of the ECB's Governing Council) have sensibly suggested that central banks should tread carefully by reducing the importance of the output gap in their decision making.
"More generally, policymakers—be they in the central bank or in the ministry of finance—would do well by communicating their assumptions about potential output growth to the public."
With that in mind, I will leave you with the recent communication on the subject offered by Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta President Dennis Lockhart:
"Many observers see substantial slack in the economy that could persist for some years. Economists' more formal term for slack is "output gap." We at the Atlanta Fed see a meaningful output gap developing, but in our view it is smaller than would normally be associated with the weak pace of growth we expect over the next couple of years because all the obstacles to the natural pace of growth already mentioned have brought down the economy's potential for the medium term."
So, as President Lockhart indicates, mark us down, for now, on the low end of output gap scale.
Update: The San Francisco Fed's John Fernald and Kyle Matoba offer some related thoughts in the newest edition of the Bank's Economic Letter (hat tip to Econbrowser).
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta
August 19, 2009 in Business Cycles, Economic Growth and Development, Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy | Permalink
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Comments
Call me crazy, but I think this thing will turn and do so fast. We'll be busy again soon. But after that initial buzz, I don't know.
Today people are so connected and capital networks and social networks stronger than ever in world history. That is a factor not included, even in 01-02. Let's see if I'm right.
Posted by:
FormerSSResident |
August 20, 2009 at 07:07 PM
Turn good that is, from above.
Posted by:
FormerSSResident |
August 20, 2009 at 07:08 PM
Wow, and ouch. What a lot of puts and takes. Forgive me if the old quote about sound and fury signifying little occurs but nice to see all the different approaches. Reading thru them all just now it seems to be that the semi-traditional methods still seem to work and have been more accurate empirically. What Menzie calls a PDF/New Keynsian approach reflects in the CBO, FRB and IMF/WB estimates. Given that Menzie's last post which shows the IMF projections where GDPpot drops to 1% in 2010 and barely climbs back to 2% by 2015, with unemployment not reaching its speed limit until 2016 seems like the defensible position. ???
You might want to look at John Hussman of Hussman Funds take as well:
http://www.hussmanfunds.com/wmc/wmc090817.htm
It also seems to me a brute force approach would look at CalculatedRisk's work on comparing this to prior downturn's employment where this is deep and slow and "flipping" it around in a mirror image (an algebraic rotation)would also suggest "breakeven" in 2016.
Taken all together and reflecting Pres. Lockhart's view it would seem we're in a painfully slow and low recovery for most of the next decade.
Comments, reactions, correction ? Please tell me I'm wrong.
Posted by:
dblwyo |
August 20, 2009 at 07:13 PM
The economies capacity to supply is not a problem. Productivity growth was remarkable in the second quarter. The amount of unused productive resources is staggering. Capacity utilization is 12.4 points below its 1972-2008 average. Returning to the 64.3% employment/population ratio of 1999-2000 would necessitate an 11+ percent increase in private sector employment in just two years (or a 13% increase in three years).
Getting back to full employment is a challenge, but not impossible. Four times in the last 70 years, private sector employment has grown by more than 11 percent in just 24 months. Three of them were war related: entry into World War 2, demobilization after WW2 and entry into the Korean War. The peace time example was from January 1977 to January 1979 when private employment rose 11.5 percent. This two year period also set a 50 year record for percentage increase in total hours worked in the non-farm economy and for increases in the employment-population ratio.
What caused such remarkable growth in 1977 and 1978? Answer: a generous TEMPORARY Federal tax credit for increases in employment above 102 percent of the firm’s employment.level in the previous year
The Democratic Congress elected in 1976 arrived in Washington at a time of high unemployment, anemic (3.4% during 1976) employment growth and rising inflation due to the quadrupling of world oil prices in 1973-74. It responded with a temporary New Jobs Tax Credit (NJTC) for 1977 and 1978 that lowered the marginal cost of expanding a firm's workforce by roughly 15 percent on average (more for low wage and high turnover firms). Despite foot dragging by the IRS, one third of the nation’s private employers received NJTC credits that lowered their 1978 taxes by $3.1 billion. By the final quarter of 1978, capacity utilization had spiked, real output had increased 15 percent and unemployment had dropped from 7.8 to 5.9 percent.
The expiration of the NJTC at the end of 1978 did not unravel these effects. During the next 12 months, output and employment continued to grow albeit at a slower pace and the employment-population ratio and unemployment rate were stable.
The later 1980 and 1982-83 recessions were caused by the 160% increase in oil prices precipitated by the Iranian revolution & the Iran/Iraq war and the Federal Reserve response to inflationary consequences of the oil shock.
http://digitalcommons.ilr.cornell.edu/articles/242/
Posted by:
John Bishop |
August 22, 2009 at 06:50 PM
Perhaps this discussion is too macro. A good chunk of our unused capacity is capacity to build more housing--when we already have a substantial excess supply. (Data here: http://www.census.gov/hhes/www/housing/hvs/hvs.html). Getting that unused capacity productive again would not make us a wealthier country, it would only make us a more-over-supplied-in-housing country.
Some of the resources used to create this productive capacity need to be redirected to other sectors, but some of the resources are so specialized (backhoes, nail guns, chop saws) that they may rust away before they are needed again.
This suggests that meaningful capacity is lower than currently measured, our output gap is less, and the room for a rebound is less.
Posted by:
Bill Conerly |
August 23, 2009 at 01:01 PM
As a business writer, I hope the economy is improving. In the 30-plus years I have been reporting on small business topics, I have never witnessed more devastation in the marketplace. It is a Hurricane Katrina out there. What small business needs is a big infusion of credit to jump start the market. Credit has been cut off to businesses through no fault of their own. To cite just one example, a contractor had a $500,000 line of credit reduced to zero over night. Following that he laid off staff members. This sector of the economy is in desperate need of help. The big banks received help, now it is time to help the little guy.
Ron D
Posted by:
Ron Derven |
August 25, 2009 at 11:03 PM
June 03, 2009
Debt and money
If you are hunkered down on inflation watch, yesterday's news offered some soothing words. From Reuters:
"Chinese officials have expressed concern that heavy deficit spending and an ultra-loose monetary policy could spark inflation, eroding the value of China's U.S. bond holdings.
"But [U.S. Treasury Secretary Timothy] Geithner said: 'We have a strong, independent Fed and I am completely confident they have the ability to do their job under the law, which is to keep inflation stable and low over time, and that they will be able to—and certainly intend to—unwind these exceptional measures as soon as they have served their purpose.' "
And from Bloomberg:
"He said that there was 'no risk' of the U.S. monetizing its debt, a response to a question about whether the government would seek to finance the national debt by expanding the money supply and thus trigger a rise in inflation."
Concerns about such monetization arose in the wake of the FOMC's decision at its March meeting to purchase up to $300 billion of longer-term Treasury securities and that decision's coincidence with the very large fiscal deficits contemplated in President Obama's budget proposals. Those concerns have accelerated as longer-term Treasury yields have moved higher since.
There will, I trust, be plenty of opportunity to expand on these concerns as things develop, but for now I will offer just a little perspective in the form of the chart below, which shows the recent and (near-term) prospective shares of federal debt held by the Federal Reserve. The red line represents the share of debt that will be held by the Fed at the end of fiscal year 2009 if the $300 billion Treasury purchase program is completed and the federal deficit emerges as currently predicted by the Congressional Budget Office.
The financial crisis has, of course, borne witness to the shift in the Fed's balance sheet from Treasuries (which have been much in demand by the private sector) to a variety of loans and mortgage-backed securities. The consequence has been a sharp fall in the fraction of government debt held by the central bank, a fact that will be little changed under the current trajectory of Fed purchases and projected deficit spending.
A large decline in Fed holdings of Treasury bills—securities that mature in one year or less—drives much of the pattern seen in the chart above. The drop-off in share is not as large for Treasury notes—securities in the two- to ten-year maturity range, and some assumptions have to be made to get a picture of how the Fed's share might evolve over the near term. Without knowing how this evolution will occur, I developed two general assumptions for argument sake. If net new issues of Treasury debt follow historical averages, meaning just over half of net new debt is in the form of notes, and if the central bank applies the remainder of the $300 billion of longer-term Treasury purchases (about $170 billion at the end May) to notes, then the Fed would hold roughly 13 percent of the outstanding stock by the end of the year. If the Treasury were to issue nothing but bills or bonds, a $170 billion purchase of notes by the Fed would bring its share up to the neighborhood of 17 percent. Though these numbers are not as unusually low in historical context as is the case for total outstanding debt, neither would they jump off the page as an extreme aberration in the other direction.
Some might argue that "monetization" these days involves a whole lot more than government debt, but Chairman Bernanke has been pretty clear about his intentions regarding the overall size of the Fed's balance sheet. And, as I see it, so far allegations that extraordinary steps are being taken specifically to accommodate fiscal deficits are properly characterized as risk rather than fact.
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed
June 3, 2009 in Federal Debt and Deficits, Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Inflation | Permalink
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I think this is an oversimplification. large number of Treasuries in the past were being held as assets from banks not the result of Quantative Easing.
If you look at the fact the fed has been trading sercure T-bills for dubious assests and printing money to acquire treasuries.
I think their is a strong possibility that the Fed ia allowing positioning itself to absorb billions in write downs on the non-Treasury assets.
The end result will be another laundering of Toxic Assets for the banks. The Fed will have basically monetized the Bank Losses onto the American Taxpayer who will be stuck paying the Fed to moentize banks bad lending.
Posted by:
Kevin |
June 04, 2009 at 10:25 AM
I found this blog really good, this is a best way to share information to increase knowledge and learning capabilities. good work
Posted by:
Research Paper Writing |
June 05, 2009 at 02:46 AM
David - thanks. You "wouldn't believe" how widespread, prevalent, virulent and heartfelt this meme is; nor what damage it's doing about the finance/invest/econ/bizz communities AND the normal folk who don't walk like that. Here and in your day job it would be in your and your organization's interest to continue to pursue and explain the situation, mechanisms and ramifications.
The sound and fury signifying nothing is about 99% of the discussion; other than one Krugman column and this I can find little or nothing sensible.
Posted by:
dblwyo |
June 05, 2009 at 09:01 PM
Now all that said two strictly bloggish comments or questions that build on the concerns:
1) in charting TNX for the last several charts I see nothing aberrational about current rates; instead there's an aberrational price jump beginning around Sep08 or so. Gee, I wonder why that is ?
2) how do you guys estimate Velocity ? I tried a poor man's version using FRED II data on GDP (real,nominal), M2 (M3 and MZM were similar)and the GDP Deflator for MV=PQ by V = GDP/MZM. On that basis V has fallen ~21% since Q406 having risen ~9.2% from Q303 to Q306. That rise would seem reasonable for a slow recovery but that seems like a significant fall in a shorter timeframe ?
Posted by:
dblwyo |
June 05, 2009 at 09:20 PM
People who are concerned about "monetization" simply don't understand how our monetary system works. Reserves are one kind of deposit at the Fed; Treasuries are another kind of deposit. Other than interest rates (and with the Fed paying interest on reserves now, even that is a wash), there is no difference between them - they are both financial liabilities of the Federal government, not convertible into anything else. If the Treasury ceased to issue securities, all that would happen is that interest rates would drop to zero.
The monetization-phobes are stuck in a gold-standard way of thinking that is totally inapplicable to current floating exchange rate fiat money regimes.
Posted by:
Jim Baird |
June 08, 2009 at 09:02 AM
Great article thanks very much for sharing. thanks.
Posted by:
wii24 |
July 17, 2009 at 06:36 PM
Wonderfully informative blog. Great article-thanks for helping keep the masses informed!
Posted by:
Grace |
July 29, 2009 at 11:51 AM
Great post, i've already subscribed to your feed. thanks
Posted by:
renda extra |
August 01, 2009 at 08:44 AM
Thanks for the post. It's good to see that someone remembers how and why the "idea" of money works.
Posted by:
Jons Debt News |
August 05, 2009 at 10:14 PM
Great article. I just wish the sound bite news media would publish detailed facts like you. Keep up the good work.
Posted by:
Ron Stone |
August 12, 2009 at 04:07 PM
Great post. Your blog has become one of my regular reads. Thanks.
Posted by:
Make Money Online |
August 19, 2009 at 12:24 AM
HI
Thanks for the article on debt and money. Some very good points and interesting information. I have bookmarked your site and will be back to learn more! Thanks again,
Rod
Posted by:
Rod Bird |
September 13, 2009 at 08:25 PM
If we aren't loading up on one thing then it's another.
Personally I don't really care what value China has in the USA. If China isn't ready to roll with the bad and the good they shouldn't be handing us money over and over again.
Posted by:
Penny Stocks to Buy |
October 12, 2009 at 11:37 AM
China really should have expected this would happen. We're still the bullies out there and can get away with things like this!
Posted by:
Fast Cash Lydia |
October 17, 2009 at 11:38 PM
chinise money policy is always flawed...they has no farsight at all, all small talks kept aside (includng projections) look at their market so volatile...and look at at the Heterogeneous distributon of wealth..!!
Posted by:
Riju@Insure-Investment |
October 26, 2009 at 12:18 PM
May 29, 2009
A new accord?
As days go in the U.S. Treasury market, Wednesday was a rough one. Bloomberg News described the day's developments as follows:
"The difference in yields between Treasury two- and 10-year notes widened to a record on concern surging sales of U.S. debt will overwhelm the Federal Reserve's efforts to keep borrowing costs low. …
"The unprecedented government borrowing has created concern about a rise in consumer prices. Policy makers have expanded the Fed's balance sheet to $2.2 trillion while excess reserves at U.S. banks have increased to $896.3 billion.
" 'Inflation is in the headlight of many investors,' wrote Andrew Brenner, co-head of structured products and emerging markets in New York at MF Global Inc., in a note to clients today."
By cosmic coincidence, I was reading that story in Tokyo as I prepared to chair a session at the Bank of Japan's 2009 International Conference on Financial System and Monetary Policy Implementation in which Marvin Goodfriend (Carnegie-Mellon professor and former Richmond Fed policy adviser) presented his thinking on keeping the central bank's inflation objectives firmly in hand at a time of rapidly rising government debt and large increases in the Fed's balance sheet. Professor Goodfriend's case is laid out in a paper titled "Central Banking in the Credit Turmoil: An Assessment of Federal Reserve Practice" (which was also presented at a conference devoted to research on the interactions between monetary and fiscal policy—that is, government spending and tax—co-sponsored by Princeton University's Center for Economic Policy Studies and Indiana University's Center for Applied Economics and Policy Research). Goodfriend pulls no punches:
"The 1951 'Accord' between the United States Treasury and the Federal Reserve was one of the most dramatic events in U.S. financial history. The Accord ended an arrangement dating from World War II in which the Fed agreed to use its monetary policy powers to keep interest rates low to help finance the war effort. The Truman Treasury urged that the agreement be extended to keep interest rates low in order to hold down the cost of the huge Federal government debt accumulated during the war. Fed officials argued that keeping interest rates low would require inflationary money growth that would destabilize the economy and ultimately fail.
"The so-called Accord was only one paragraph, but it famously reasserted the principle of Fed independence so that monetary policy might serve exclusively to stabilize inflation and the macroeconomic activity. …
"The enormous expansion of Fed lending today—in scale, in reach beyond depository institutions, and in acceptable collateral—demands an accord for Fed credit policy to supplement the accord on monetary policy. A credit accord should set guidelines for Fed credit policy so that pressure to misuse Fed credit policy for fiscal purposes does not undermine the Fed's independence and impair the central bank's power to stabilize financial markets, inflation, and macroeconomic activity."
Goodfriend's "new accord" amounts to asserting a set of principles that would reinforce price stability as the central goal of monetary policy, set the Fed down the road of extricating itself from the extraordinary credit market interventions of the past year-and-a-half, and join the central bank and Treasury in common cause toward the goal of doing everything possible to make sure that the Fed and Treasury don't go there again.
The paper was provocative, but it also raised a couple of fundamental questions. In particular, what is the degree of autonomous fiscal risk-taking appropriate to allocate to a central bank? If such powers are granted, how often and under what conditions ought those powers be exercised? And how far should the powers reach? If, as Goodfriend states, "the central bank's power to stabilize financial markets, inflation, and macroeconomic activity" requires lender-of-last-resort interventions—and hence pure credit policy interventions—what does that imply about the appropriate scope of monetary and regulatory authorities going forward? If the "shadow banking system" is the de facto banking system of the modern era—as Yale University's Gary Gorton argued in a paper presented at the Atlanta Fed's annual Financial Markets Conference held earlier this month—is the central bank's lender-of-last-resort function meaningful if narrowly construed (that is, if it fails to reach the shadow banking system)?
These, really, are first-order questions. On to the debate.
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director of the Atlanta Fed
May 29, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Fiscal Policy, Monetary Policy | Permalink
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There seems to me be some danger that the Federal Reserve may use its fiscal powers to lend rather too much support to banks at the expense of taxpayers. Banks enjoy something of the advantage of an employee with the office closest to the boss.
Posted by:
don |
May 29, 2009 at 07:29 PM
This is a fantastic debate to have. My hope is that the debate is kept out of the political sphere, but realistically I don't think that will be possible.
Is the Fed assuming too much risk that makes it too big to fail? What checks and balances need to be in place so that it can't, or are current checks and balances enough?
Clearly, Treasury Secretaries, President's of the US, and Congress have various viewpoints that can change like the breeze. So maybe it's better to redo the Feds charter and mission to encompass the new activities.
Personally, the sooner the Fed can empty its balance sheet of these new securities, the better.
Posted by:
Jeff |
June 03, 2009 at 08:06 AM
Is not the real problem to much of this that the Fed claims ownership of the money that is printed for it, then "lends" it to the US government? It did nothing to earn the money and does NOT own it, ongoing since 1913 ! Our national debt is a scam on the American public based on that horrid law that even Pres. Wilson decried as he signed it. Ron Paul's HR1207 MUST get out of committee...or FIRE mr. Barney Frank (chair)..for that and many other reasons!
Posted by:
Tom Lamar |
June 13, 2009 at 07:45 PM
Agree with don.
Posted by:
Celeb Buster |
July 31, 2009 at 10:53 AM
May 06, 2009
When is rapid growth in a central bank's balance sheet not cause for concern?
The unprecedented growth in the Federal Reserve's balance sheet during the past year has generated considerable debate about potential problems for the economy down the road (see for example, here, here, and here). But a big change in the size of a central bank's balance sheet in a relatively short space of time is not necessarily a precondition for problems down the road. A case in point is New Zealand circa 2006.
In July 2006, the Reserve Bank of New Zealand (RBNZ) changed the monetary policy operating system from a channel or corridor system (like that used in Australia and Canada) to a floor system (see Neild 2006 for a description of this transition). Under this floor system, the RBNZ stopped offering free collateralized daylight credit to banks for settlement purposes. In other words, they removed the distinction between daylight and overnight reserves. Also under this new system, reserves were remunerated at the official cash rate (OCR), the RBNZ's target interest rate. Banks have access to RBNZ credit if needed as well, but at a rate 50 basis points above the OCR.
By the end of 2006 the target supply of bank reserves had increased sufficiently to allow for the smooth operation of the New Zealand payment system. The new level fluctuated around NZD 8 billion and represented an increase of 400 times the level under the previous regime. Todd Keister, Antonie Martin, and James McAndrews from the New York Fed have an interesting article describing the economics of a floor system. In that paper the authors stress that a floor system severs the link between the quantity of reserves and the target interest rate. A central bank could increase the supply of reserves—either for settlement or liquidity purposes—without changing the stance of monetary policy (the target interest rate).
Well, that's the theory. What about in practice? Did New Zealand's economy collapse under the weight of an inflationary spiral created by an explosion in the central bank money? In short, the answer is no. Because these newly created reserves were staying within the banking system there was no upward pressure on the broader money supply. For instance, M1 (currency plus checkable deposits) was NZD $22.9 billion in July 2006, and a year later it stood at $22.2 billion—a change that would not scare even the most hardcore monetarist.
Could a floor system work in the United States? Possibly. For one thing, with total reserve balances at the Fed about 18 times as large as they were a year ago there has been a sharp decline in demand for daylight overdrafts. Average daylight overdrafts for funds were $52 billion in the first quarter of 2008, but a year later that level had fallen to around $8.9 billion. With so many reserves in the system, the need for intraday borrowing from the Fed has decreased sharply. Of course, there are some big differences between the financial systems of New Zealand and the United States, including the fact that not all institutions depositing funds with the Fed are eligible to earn interest on reserves. But I do think the floor system provides some interesting food for thought—kiwifruit, perhaps.
By John Robertson, a vice president in the Research Department at the Atlanta Fed
May 6, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy | Permalink
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An interesting article. Another case in point is the Bank of England, which began paying interest on reserves in 2006 as part of a reserve-averaging scheme designed to reduce the volatility of money market interest rates. The result was that the stock of reserves increased almost immediately from less than £1bn to around £20bn (ie just under 2% of UK GDP) with no discernable impact on inflation or economic activity.
Posted by:
RebelEconomist |
May 07, 2009 at 09:53 AM
This concentration on reserves is left over from the days of the gold standard, when they actually meant something. They are just entries in a spreadsheet, now - it's really surprised me that economists who ought to know better have thought that this reserve expansion (which is just substituting one form of asset for another on bank balances sheets) was going to have any effect beyond lowering a few long -term rates a few basis points.
Posted by:
Jim Baird |
May 08, 2009 at 10:35 AM
The answer to this one is easy - NEVER!
Posted by:
bailey |
May 14, 2009 at 05:48 AM
Isn't the Fed already operating a floor system, in effect, by paying interest on reserves at the official policy rate? My understanding is that this is about the only way to manage the expansion of the balance sheet required for credit easing.
Posted by:
tom |
May 14, 2009 at 02:34 PM
April 01, 2009
Snapping ropes and breaking bricks
James Hamilton of Econbrowser is concerned about the current state of monetary policy. On the blog, Jim writes:
"I would suggest first that the new Fed balance sheet represents a fundamental transformation of the role of the central bank. The whole idea behind open market operations is to make the process of creating new money completely separate from the decision of who receives any fiscal transfers. In a traditional open market operation, the Fed buys or sells an existing Treasury obligation for the same price anyone else would pay for the security. As a result, the operation itself does not involve any net transfer of wealth between the Fed and the private sector. The philosophy is that the Fed should base its decisions on economy-wide conditions, and leave it entirely up to the market or fiscal authorities to determine where those funds get allocated.
"The philosophy behind the pullulating new Fed facilities is precisely the opposite of that traditional concept. The whole purpose of these facilities is to redirect capital to specific perceived priorities. I am uncomfortable on a general level with the suggestion that unelected Fed officials are better able to make such decisions than private investors who put their own capital where they think it will earn the highest reward."
After I looked up "pullulating," I found much to agree with in Professor Hamilton's description—or at least I did up to that last sentence. I certainly share his discomfort with a presumption that "Fed officials are better able to make… decisions than private investors," but that doesn't quite capture my view—and I emphasize my view—of how nontraditional policy is supposed to work. My own description of what the "fundamental transformation" of central bank policy is all about appears, hot off of the virtual press, in the first quarter issue of EconSouth, the Atlanta Fed's regional economics publication:
"I have a simple way of thinking about how monetary policy works. Imagine a long rope. At one of end of the rope are short-term, relatively riskless interest rates. Farther along the rope are yields on longer-term but still relatively safe assets. Off at the other end of the rope are multiple tethers representing mortgage rates, corporate bond rates, and auto loan rates—the sorts of interest rates that drive decisions by businesses and consumers. In the textbook version of central banking, the monetary authority grabs the short end of this allegorical rope, where the federal funds rate resides, and gives it a snap. The motion ripples down and hopefully reaches longer-term U.S. Treasury rates, which then relay the action to other market interest rates, where the changes reverberate throughout the economy at large.
"That's the story in normal times, and over the past year and a half the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) has done a fair bit of rope-snapping. In August 2007 the FOMC set the federal funds rate target—the overnight rate on loans made between banks—at 5.25 percent. As of December 2008, the rate target was lowered to a very low range of 0–0.25 percent. As the committee noted then (and reiterated in January), 'weak economic conditions are likely to warrant exceptionally low levels of the federal funds rate for some time.'
"These FOMC statements held another extremely important message: 'The focus of policy going forward will be to support the functioning of financial markets and stimulate the economy.' In a speech to the National Press Club on Feb. 18, Federal Reserve Chairman Ben Bernanke elaborated:"
'Extraordinary times call for extraordinary measures. Responding to the very difficult economic and financial challenges we face, the Federal Reserve has gone beyond traditional monetary policy making to develop new policy tools to address the dysfunctions in the nation's credit markets.'
"One way to view the effects of those credit market dysfunctions is to imagine that someone had placed a series of bricks at strategic points along the segment of rope connecting short-term interest rates to broader market rates. With these bricks in place, it is simply not enough for a central bank to keep snapping short-term interest rates: The bricks—dysfunctions in the markets—will keep the impulse from being transmitted to the interest rates that are directly connected to market outcomes. Thus, a new set of policy instruments is needed, instruments that allow the monetary authority to circumvent blockages in the monetary transmission mechanism."
The "policy instruments" I have in mind, of course, are the pullulating new facilities that have Jim Hamilton worried. But it is worth emphasizing that many of these facilities are motivated by "unusual and exigent circumstances," a point emphasized in the recent Treasury-Federal Reserve statement (which is discussed in some detail by Tim Duy):
"As long as unusual and exigent circumstances persist, the Federal Reserve will continue to use all its tools working closely and cooperatively with the Treasury and other agencies as needed to improve the functioning of credit markets, help prevent the failure of institutions that could cause systemic damage, and to foster the stabilization and repair of the financial system."
How long will those conditions persist? Returning to my EconSouth commentary:
"No set timetable exists, but one would presume that as long as the bricks of market dysfunction are lying around, the tools will be necessary. Eventually, of course, markets will heal, the bricks will crumble, and the stage will be set to a return to business as usual in monetary policy and the economy. The sooner the better, but in the meantime it's helpful to have the tools in hand to start cracking the bricks."
That's my story, and I'm sticking to it.
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director of the Atlanta Fed
April 1, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Financial System, Money Markets | Permalink
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The Fed has terrible judgment. Just look at the past several years, it ignored cheap money from overseas ramping up credit growth because inflation was low while asset inflation was going to the moon, when the you-know-what hit the fan in August 07 they all believed it would be contained to housing and business capex would pick up the slack, then they started cutting rates when the problem was not the cost of money but in open market operations (ask some people off-the-record about dudley's performance at that time), and then the sharp eases that gave china and the other dollar-linked nations a boost that inflated energy and food prices then raising U.S. inflation to the point where the FOMC was adamant in having the forwards price a fed funds hike by year-end 2008. this fed has been wrong and wrong-headed all along the way and now Bernanke and the Fed are viewed as stewards of the financial order in need of broader regulatory power? as my grandmother used to say -- Oy! econmkts.blogspot.com
Posted by:
steven blitz |
April 01, 2009 at 03:07 PM
I'm not an economist, but heck, it's never stopped me before, so here goes.
No one in the private economy is spending their buck, so you spend the government buck.
When banks leave the field of battle, the Fed and the Treasury step in and provide a minimal amount of lending/spending, thus limiting the near term damage to ordinary people of all sizes and stripes.
This all works a lot better if the Fed and Treasury don't have to pay any interest on their borrowing.
Yield curve gets an upward, healthier slope. Credit markets notice this.
Once the now chastened (and poorer) private money returns to the playing field, the Fed and the Treasury recall their money and lessen the sovereign debt.
Depression avoided. At least for now.
Posted by:
Beezer |
April 02, 2009 at 09:45 AM
I follow Prof Altig's logic, but disagree on the bricks. Are the bricks market related, or there because of fiscal and fed policy? Had the elected wonks let AIG and the rest go bankrupt, surely we would have seen a melt down in the market. However, all the intervention has created a different conundrum. We are still in a liquidity trap. Since the Fed action of last Wednesday, long term rates have seeped higher. Only active Fed action will keep those long term rates low, since expectations are driving them higher. The short end of the curve is complacent. It's hard to snap the rope when rates are zero.
Fiscal policy is dismal, since it is anti-growth, and highly inflationary. The rhetoric coming out of the Congressional chambers is not helpful either. The government has bred a climate of fear-and the savings rate has climbed significantly higher.
It brings me back to the bricks. I am convinced that all of the insolvent banks and counter parties should have been allowed to fail, or taken a lot of pain. The market would have unfrozen quicker (bankruptcy does that) and we would be hurt but recovering. Now we are limbo.
When we watch Washington instead of LaSalle and Wall Street, we are in trouble.
Posted by:
jeff |
April 02, 2009 at 10:28 PM
While the analogy makes sense, I do not believe it is the Fed's job to fix these 'bricks'. I could understand this in the case of panic, but we are beyond that. Liquidity in particular appears under control - large bid-ask spreads are natural in a recession on complex products that have not gone through a deep recession along with massive gov't interventions.
Higher long rates are not a problem, its actually a necessary condition for banks to generate attractive returns on new loans which could draw new private capital. If the fed wants cheap loans to consumers and businesses then the gov't will have to directly or indirectly provide all of the loans, with no expectations of willing private capital. If consumers and businesses can not afford high rates then much safer to use fiscal policy to soften the blow. Not least it encourages good behavior, not the over leveraged. Also If inflation sets in rates will presumably go up considerably, creating a recession far worse than what we have already.
-GB
Posted by:
GB |
April 05, 2009 at 01:10 AM
What is needed is for the Federal Reserve to think out of the box and seriously consider ways to enforce significantly negative short term interest rates.
In order to achieve that, it should not add numerous policy instruments but remove the one that blocks the system : cash banknotes (you know, the actual green paper thing !).
It is easier than one thinks : just consider the percentage of one's expense that one actually settles with paper cash : 5%,3% ? The US (and most of the industrial world actually) has already the "plastic" infrastructure in place. Volker is wrong about the ATM being the only innovation in finance since the 70's ! Ubiquitous retail electronic payment is a very significant one and is indeed a big difference between today and the 30's.
Roosevelt had to abolish (in practice) private ownership of gold to monetarily kick start the New Deal. The equivalent for Obama is to abolish paper cash. Once this is done (actually, once it is announced with a short deadline !), the Fed can get rates into negative territory. Reserves at the Fed would COST money to depositing banks, that would transmit this cost to deposit holders,that would impact the whole yield curve both on treasuries and corporates.
Bottom line : the Fed is back in the game with a full powered monetary policy. As a non-negligible side benefit, underground economy, especially the illegal one, finds it much more difficult to operate.
If it is so easy, why hasn't this been done in Japan ? Two reasons,the second being the most important :
- It would have sent the Yen to the bottom, raising the ire of the US at that time.
- The social groups that were the biggest holder of cash at the end of "The Bubble" in Japan were (and are still) at the same time the biggest "constituencies" of the LDP.
Posted by:
Charles Monneron |
April 05, 2009 at 10:05 PM
March 24, 2009
Careful with that language
No doubt about it. The decision last week by the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) to further expand its balance sheet by up to $1.15 trillion was momentous. But beyond that number, some commentators seem to have suggested that the FOMC took a qualitative leap into quantitative easing (QE):
Fed kept its target rate unaltered and intensifies quantitative easing
The last article above comes from BBC News, where it is made clear that the QE theme is associated with the addition of long-dated Treasury securities to the list of assets that the FOMC has specifically asked the folks at the Open Market Desk at the New York Fed to purchase on their behalf:
"We've now had two weeks of quantitative easing in the UK. But as far as the world's concerned, this is Day One. That's because, as of today, the quantitative easers have the US Federal Reserve on their team.
"The US central bank's announcement yesterday that it would start buying US long-dated Treasury bills as part of a nearly $1.2 trillion stimulus programme came as a shock."
OK, let's repeat. Like any balance sheet, the Federal Reserve's has two pieces, the liability side and the asset side. The FOMC statement was explicitly about the asset side—the quantity and types of assets the Fed intends to purchase. Quantitative easing, on the other hand, is about the liability side. As reader Fischer points out in a comment to our previous macroblog post on the Bank of England's balance sheet:
"The entire point of quantitative easing is to put assets into the economy that increase the money supply..."
That exact point was made by Chairman Bernanke back in January:
"The Federal Reserve's approach to supporting credit markets is conceptually distinct from quantitative easing (QE), the policy approach used by the Bank of Japan from 2001 to 2006. Our approach—which could be described as 'credit easing'—resembles quantitative easing in one respect: It involves an expansion of the central bank's balance sheet. However, in a pure QE regime, the focus of policy is the quantity of bank reserves, which are liabilities of the central bank; the composition of loans and securities on the asset side of the central bank's balance sheet is incidental."
Of course, some think that such "incidental" expansions are far from trivial. John Taylor, for one, has a different view (registration may be required to see full article):
"An explosion of money is the main reason, but not the only one, to be concerned about last week's surprise decision by the Federal Reserve to increase sharply its holdings of mortgage backed securities and to start purchasing longer term Treasury securities."
I don't think anyone should be dismissive of that concern, which makes item 3 of yesterday's joint statement from the Treasury and Federal Reserve particularly noteworthy:
"3. Need to preserve monetary stability: Actions that the Federal Reserve takes, during this period of unusual and exigent circumstances, in the pursuit of financial stability, such as loans or securities purchases that influence the size of its balance sheet, must not constrain the exercise of monetary policy as needed to foster maximum sustainable employment and price stability. Treasury has in place a special financing mechanism called the Supplementary Financing Program, which helps the Federal Reserve manage its balance sheet. In addition, the Treasury and the Federal Reserve are seeking legislative action to provide additional tools the Federal Reserve can use to sterilize the effects of its lending or securities purchases on the supply of bank reserves."
Let us be clear: We are not trying to characterize the recent Federal Reserve decision one way or another. But as the Bank of England's current strategy and the Federal Reserve Chairman's comments noted above clearly indicate, expansions of the asset side of central bank's balance sheet—"credit policy," if you will—are conceptually, and if sterilized operationally, distinct from quantitative easing. The public discussion will be greatly enhanced if we keep those distinctions at the forefront.
David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed, and Daniel Littman, economist at the Cleveland Fed
March 24, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy | Permalink
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"...If sterilized operationally...", and is the FED actually sterilizing its expansion of the balance sheet? How so? Pray tell.
Posted by:
APB |
March 24, 2009 at 06:02 PM
Bill Mitchell sheds light on that.
"What is quantitative easing?
Quantitative easing merely involves the central bank buying bonds (or other bank assets) in exchange for deposits made by the central bank in the commercial banking system - that is, crediting their reserve accounts. The aim is to create excess reserves which will then be loaned to chase a positive rate of return. So the central bank exchanges non- or low interest-bearing assets (which we might simply think of as reserve balances in the commercial banks) for higher yielding and longer term assets (securities).
So quantitative easing is really just an accounting adjustment in the various accounts to reflect the asset exchange. The commercial banks get a new deposit (central bank funds) and they reduce their holdings of the asset they sell.
Proponents of quantitative easing claim it adds liquidity to a system where lending by commercial banks is seemingly frozen because of a lack of reserves in the banking system overall. It is commonly claimed that it involves “printing money” to ease a “cash-starved” system. That is an unfortunate and misleading representation.
Invoking the “evil-sounding” printing money terminology to describe this practice is thus very misleading - and probably deliberately so. All transactions between the Government sector (Treasury and Central Bank) and the non-government sector involve the creation and destruction of net financial assets denominated in the currency of issue. Typically, when the Government buys something from the Non-government sector they just credit a bank account somewhere - that is, numbers denoting the size of the transaction appear electronically in the banking system.
Does quantitative easing work? The mainstream belief is that quantitative easing will stimulate the economy sufficiently to put a brake on the downward spiral of lost production and the increasing unemployment.
It is based on the erroneous belief that the banks need reserves before they can lend and that quantititative easing provides those reserves. That is a major misrepresentation of the way the banking system actually operates. But the mainstream position asserts (wrongly) that banks only lend if they have prior reserves. The illusion is that a bank is an institution that accepts deposits to build up reserves and then on-lends them at a margin to make money. The conceptualisation suggests that if it doesn’t have adequate reserves then it cannot lend. So the presupposition is that by adding to bank reserves, quantitative easing will help lending.
But this is a completely incorrect depiction of how banks operate. Bank lending is not “reserve constrained”. Banks lend to any credit worthy customer they can find and then worry about their reserve positions afterwards. If they are short of reserves (their reserve accounts have to be in positive balance each day and in some countries central banks require certain ratios to be maintained) then they borrow from each other in the interbank market or, ultimately, they will borrow from the central bank through the so-called discount window. They are reluctant to use the latter facility because it carries a penalty (higher interest cost).
The point is that building bank reserves will not increase the bank’s capacity to lend. Loans create deposits which generate reserves.
The reason that the commercial banks are currently not lending much is because they are not convinced there are credit worthy customers on their doorstep. In the current climate the assessment of what is credit worthy has become very strict compared to the lax days as the top of the boom approached."
Posted by:
Felipe |
March 25, 2009 at 11:25 AM
"The entire point of quantitative easing is to put assets into the economy that increase the money supply..." :)
Posted by:
Kenny |
March 26, 2009 at 12:06 AM
From quote above:
"central bank buying bonds (or other bank assets) in exchange for deposits made by the central bank in the commercial banking system"
Are those money by any means *locked* at the CB? I suppose not and therefore question the claim that the asset purchase is sterilized. If the new money stays at the CB that is more a reflection of banks not needing them.
Bank reserves are definitely liabilities for the CB, so to say that the liability side is not affected sounds strange.
Posted by:
Johan |
March 26, 2009 at 03:43 PM
APB -- I suspect your question is rhetorical, but in case not: For the week ending March 18 the balance sheet was about $2.1 trillion, the monetary base about $1.6 trillion. So a bit less than 1/4 has been sterilized.
That said, the balance sheet grew by $168 billion over the week, and bank reserves by $148 billion (the second largest increase ever). So not a lot of sterilization as of late.
Posted by:
David Altig |
March 26, 2009 at 05:43 PM
On March 19, 2001, the Bank of Japan issued a monetary policy known as quantitative easing, which stimulated the Japanese economy after the burst of the dot-com bubble. This was the "birth" of the term quantitative easing, even though I do not think it represented the actual birth of the concept. So happy belated birthday to quantitative easing, I guess.
Posted by:
dan littman |
March 26, 2009 at 05:54 PM
The point is that building bank reserves will not increase the bank’s capacity to lend. Loans create deposits which generate reserves. Bank lending is not “reserve constrained”. Thus, increasing bank reserves will not lead to an increase in bank lending.
The reason why commercial banks are currently not lending much is because they are not convinced there are credit worthy customers.
Quantitative easing is when the central bank purchases investment maturity bonds (or other bank assets) in return for bank reserves and involves no change in the net financial assets of the non-government sector.
I hope this help. Check also Bill Mitchell's blog
http://bilbo.economicoutlook.net/blog/?paged=2
Posted by:
Felipe |
March 27, 2009 at 12:05 AM
OK, *if* purchases are compensated by the Supplementary Financing Program issuing as much short-term debt, there is no effect on money supply.
Posted by:
Johan |
March 27, 2009 at 06:49 AM
Suppose the Fed decides to buy assets from depository institutions (eg commercial banks).
The Fed buys the asset (let us say worth $1000) from the bank and then makes a payment to the bank crediting the bank's reserve account by the same amount of the purchase.
What are the balance sheet entries? We can use T-accounts to reflect these changes.
First, for the Fed. The Fed increases its assets holdings by $1000 and at the same time its liabilities are increased by $1000.
Now, for the commercial bank. In the first step the bank sells the asset to the Fed in exchange for reserves. The Fed exchanges non- or low interest-bearing assets (which we might simply think of as reserve balances in the commercial banks) for higher yielding and longer term assets (securities or any other asset).
The commercial banks get a new deposit (central bank funds) and they reduce their holdings of the asset they sell.
(Recall that the government spends by creating deposits in the private banking system).
This is what happened during the financial crisis when the Fed decided to buy assets from the banking system. Banks started to have non-interest bearing excess reserves. They tried to lend them on the interbank market. This put a downward pressure on the overnight interest rate. Note that the Fed has to keep the overnight interest rate close to the target. To accomplish this, they started to sell bonds to drain reserves from the banking system and hit the ffr target. At some point they ran out of bonds to drain these reserves. What did the Fed do? They asked the Treasury to issue more T-bills to, basically, help the Fed drain the excess reserves.
Later on, they recognized that if they started paying interest on reserves that would put a 'floor' for the overnight interest rate.
This means that the overnight interest rate can not go any lower than the rate the Fed pays on them because banks will not lend reserves on the interbank market and accept a rate lower than the one that the Fed pays.
The point is that building bank reserves will not increase the bank’s capacity to lend. Loans create deposits which generate reserves. Bank lending is not “reserve constrained”. The reason why commercial banks are currently not lending much is because they are not convinced there are credit worthy customers.
Check also Warren Mosler' blog http://www.moslereconomics.com/
Posted by:
Felipe |
March 27, 2009 at 12:15 PM
It would be interesting to know exactly what the sterilization techiques are in this case.
To me, these are the options:
1. Paying interest on reserves.
2. A revival of the Supplimentary Financing Program that was unwinded a while ago:
http://www.ustreas.gov/press/releases/hp1275.htm
To me, technique 1 is not under the control of the Fed and technique 2 is for the future, so what we are watching now should be called QE. Feel free to correct.
Posted by:
Johan |
March 30, 2009 at 06:24 PM
Professor Bill Mitchell has it exactly correct.
For a central bank, it's always about price (interest rates) and not quantities.
www.moslereconomics.com
www.mosler2012.com
Posted by:
Warren Mosler |
April 01, 2009 at 09:30 PM
Whew! Glad you're, er, focusing on assets and not liabilities. Good thing assets can vastly exceed liabilities, unlike in the old days when they were equal by definition.
Anyway, my terror of price instability stems not from what the Fed intends, but what it can and cannot do. Yours is an optimal control problem and you're inducing explosive oscillations now and promising damping mechanisms later. Any number of contingencies could intervene to disrupt your good intentions. The obvious case is a run on the currency. Failure to gain legislative approval for needed Fed bond issuance would be another killer. Compromise of Fed independence is another. If absolutely everything goes right, I can trust the Fed's intentions, but the safer alternative is to get a margin account and buy all the DBA I can afford.
Posted by:
Erzberger's corpse |
April 05, 2009 at 07:30 AM
February 06, 2009
Contraction, not tightening
Over at Financial Crisis and Recession, Susan Woodward and Robert Hall start a recent post, titled "The Fed contracts," with this:
"The Fed has indicated that it plans to pursue a policy of quantitative easing, that is, expanding its portfolio by borrowing in financial markets at low rates and investing the proceeds in higher-yielding private investments…
"But... the Fed has engaged in quantitative tightening over the past month, reducing its borrowing and reducing its holding of higher-yielding investments…. So far, no explanation for the Fed's announcements of moving in an expansionary direction while actually contracting."
First, it is probably appropriate to point out that the use of the term "quantitative easing" is a bit out of synch with the policy approach embraced by "the Fed." This is from Chairman Bernanke's January 13 Stamp Lecture at the London School of Economics:
"The Federal Reserve's approach to supporting credit markets is conceptually distinct from quantitative easing (QE), the policy approach used by the Bank of Japan from 2001 to 2006. Our approach—which could be described as 'credit easing'—resembles quantitative easing in one respect: It involves an expansion of the central bank's balance sheet. However, in a pure QE regime, the focus of policy is the quantity of bank reserves, which are liabilities of the central bank; the composition of loans and securities on the asset side of the central bank's balance sheet is incidental… In contrast, the Federal Reserve's credit easing approach focuses on the mix of loans and securities that it holds and on how this composition of assets affects credit conditions for households and businesses."
At Economist's View, Tim Duy zeroed right in on the point:
"Woodward and Hall are confused because they do not recognize that the Fed has not initiated a policy of quantitative easing…because the Fed sees their actions as credit market related, they would have no problem with the balance sheet contracting if credit market conditions dictate."
What Woodward and Hall describe is credit easing in the Bernanke lexicon, as "expanding its portfolio by borrowing in financial markets at low rates and investing the proceeds in higher-yielding private investments" is a description of changes in the composition of Federal Reserve assets. But the intent they assume is that of quantitative easing—which in the end is all about expanding the size of the balance sheet (on the liability size specifically).
In our opinion—and we rush here to add that is only our opinion—the key to unwinding the Woodward-Hall "puzzle" is in the last sentence of the Bernanke quotation above: "the Federal Reserve's credit easing approach focuses on the mix of loans and securities that it holds and on how this composition of assets affects credit conditions for households and businesses."
It is instructive to examine the source of the recent reduction in the Fed's balance sheet.
Though several categories of Fed assets have declined in recent weeks, the really large changes have been in currency swaps and the Commercial Paper Funding Facility or CPFF. In simple terms, currency swaps are the provision of dollars to foreign central banks to help satisfy dollar-based liquidity needs in foreign financial markets, the CPFF is a Federal Reserve funding facility to assist in the functioning of domestic commercial paper markets.
As the Chairman suggested in his Stamp Lecture:
"…when credit markets and the economy have begun to recover, the Federal Reserve will have to unwind its various lending programs. To some extent, this unwinding will happen automatically, as improvements in credit markets should reduce the need to use Fed facilities."
At least in U.S. dollar interbank lending markets, liquidity pressures have abated, as LIBOR rates have fallen substantially since last fall and have held relatively steady in recent weeks, and term financing premia have similarly eased.
Commercial paper yield spreads have also narrowed considerably for both asset-backed and financial paper since the introduction of the CPFF last fall:
Interestingly, a large amount of maturing CPFF paper was not reissued into the CPFF or the market in late January. This decline could be a result of some borrowers shifting to other, cheaper sources of credit. From CNNMoney:
"The Fed's commercial paper funding facility was a popular alternative for cash-strapped corporations at the height of the credit crunch, but demand for funding through the program has waned. Another government sponsored program, the FDIC's Temporary Liquidity Guarantee Program backs financial institution debt issued up to 10 years, a more attractive alternative for many companies."
There is one additional wrinkle. Agency mortgage-backed securities—which the FOMC has authorized the purchase of, up to $500 billion—show up on the balance sheet at the time the trades settle. As of February 4, the Fed's balance sheet has $7.4 billion in Agency MBS. However, if you sum the purchases that the NY Fed posts on their Web site, the total is closer to $92 billion so far. Thus, roughly $85 billion in MBS the Fed has purchased have yet to show up on the balance sheet because the trades haven't settled. (Hat tip to our colleague Mike Hammill for bringing this to our attention.)
The central bank's balance sheet is in fact contracting. Maybe. But is it policy tightening? Doubtful.
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director, and John Robertson, vice president and senior economist at the Atlanta Fed
February 6, 2009 in Capital Markets, Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy | Permalink
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An analogy to this from the simple version of macroeconomics. Suppose the FED wanted market rates to decline by 50 bps but it also had information that the demand for money schedule had recently declined enough to lower market rates by 80 bps. We could see a slight decline in the money supply and a lowering of interest rates. Of course, this one is a bit more involved than the simple model. Speaking about going beyond the simple model, check out Nick Rowe's two wedges post:
worthwhile.typepad.com/worthwhile_canadian_initi/2009/02/is-lm-and-two-wedges-understanding-the-second-wedge.html
Posted by:
pgl |
February 07, 2009 at 06:43 AM
Ok, so is this good or bad? Good that there is less reliance on the Fed, or bad that less may be needed entirely? Good that the market is easing, or bad that it is contracting? More data needed.
Posted by:
Lord |
February 09, 2009 at 05:52 PM
Notice how "other" makes up the largest part of the book?
"Other", in this case, means lower quality assets. The Fed has been swapping cash for crap.
I sure would hate to think our cash is backed by crap. I bet others feel the same way.
Posted by:
K Ackermann |
February 11, 2009 at 09:43 PM
Well if institutions are turning to cheaper sources of credit, why has the AMLF been expanded to April 30, 2008? Doesn't this imply that there is still a big credit problem and that the Fed is going to have to loan out a lot more money to simultaneously support money market mutual funds and the commercial paper market?
Posted by:
T Bill |
February 12, 2009 at 05:13 PM
A careful study of the chart on "Federal Reserve Assets", which is a stacked-up accumulation-type chart, contradicts the claim in the article that "Though several categories of Fed assets have declined in recent weeks, the really large changes have been in currency swaps and the Commercial Paper Funding Facility or CPFF."
The graph shows clearly that Federal Reserve Assets in total have declined from a peak of nearly $2300 billion to a current value of around $1950 billion. The drop is $350 billion.
The graph shows that none of that $350B drop is in the Treasuries portfolio. But it also shows that some $150 billion of it -- nearly half -- is in the "Other" category, which presumably we are not "supposed" to focus on. By contrast, the drop in currency swaps is actually smaller, about $100 billion. And the drop in Commercial Paper Funding Facility (CPFF) is also about $100 billion.
Thus it would seem that "really large changes have been in" the category Other.
Posted by:
Wisdom Speaker |
February 20, 2009 at 03:38 PM
Following up to my previous comment, here are some balance sheet changes from the "other" category which (relative to their prior size) have been proportionately larger than those in the CPFF and Currency Swaps:
Repurchase Agreements were nearly phased out. Regular Discount Window credit is down by around half. Primary Dealer Credit Facility is down by over half from its peak. Credit direclyt Extended to AIG is down by about half. The ABCPMMMFLF is nearly phased out. Overnight securities lending to dealers is phased out.
By comparison, the reduction in the central bank liquidity swaps ("currency swaps") is only 20-25%. The CPFF LLC is actually just about unchanged according to other data I'm seeing.
On the other side: there are large elements of "Other" that have not contracted. Term Auction Credit is about the same. The Maiden Lanes are about the same.
What we are seeing, in my opinion, is a regime change from some of the "crisis" facilities to some longer-term market support facilities. I'm not qualified to judge whether this is sensible policy but it's certainly not the case that all the change is in the CPFF or the currency swaps.
Posted by:
Wisdom Speaker |
February 20, 2009 at 03:57 PM
January 15, 2009
What, exactly, is the Fed trying to do?
There has been, of late, no shortage of official voices devoted to answering the question posed in the title of this post. Chicago Fed President Charles Evans, San Francisco Fed President Janet Yellen, Richmond Fed President Jeff Lacker, Philadelphia Fed President Charles Plosser, and Chairman Bernanke have all given speeches in the last two weeks outlining their version of answers to this question. Add to that list Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta President Dennis Lockhart, who laid out his own views at a speech to the Atlanta Rotary Club this past Monday and again today at the University of Southern Mississippi's Outlook for South Mississippi Conference. Here's what he said:
"The Fed, as the country's central bank, conducts monetary policy—as distinct from fiscal policy—under legal mandates set down by Congress. The Fed's mandated policy objectives—the so-called dual mandate—are sustainable economic growth along with low and stable inflation.
"The mandates have not changed. But what has changed is some aspects of how we pursue those objectives. Extraordinary circumstances this last year and a half have required the Fed to expand the set of tools employed to meet those objectives."
What is the practical implication of those circumstances?
"The federal funds rate is a very general tool and one that relies on the functioning of credit markets to have its intended effects. But, as you know, credit markets have not been functioning normally even in markets strongly backed by the U.S. government, such as agency (e.g., Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac) mortgage-backed securities….
"Among the programs in force is the direct purchase of agency (Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, etc.) notes and mortgage-backed securities. These securities are directly linked to mortgage rates. Purchases began just a few days ago. The goal of such a program is not, in my view, to engineer a particular interest rate level, that is, to hit a particular rate target. But direct purchases can promote directionally lower rates, help restore normal market functioning, and thereby achieve a return to reliance on private sector market-based credit allocation.
"The introduction of targeted asset-side measures has been aimed squarely at the breakdown of credit markets, the circulatory system of our modern economy. In my view, a precondition of economic recovery is the return of the normal functioning of credit markets."
Sometimes, if I may paraphrase, deviating from business as usual is the best way back to business as usual.
President Lockhart's Speech
Speech Q&A
From the Atlanta Fed Speeches podcast series
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed
January 15, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy | Permalink
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What if the credit markets are, in fact, functioning normally? Would it be "normal" to lend to insolvent financial institutions, consumers who have lost their jobs, credit card abusers who have more debt than they can pay off, home buyers who want a loan at 5x income, or real estate developers who want to build in the face of massive commercial and residential inventory?
What if, after a massive lending and leveraging binge, there simply aren't that many good potential borrowers out there who actually want to borrow? If this is the case, then all of the Fed's work to free up credit will have no effect.
Posted by:
Groundhogday |
January 16, 2009 at 05:19 PM
Wasn't it the "business as usual" of the last few years that got us into this mess?
Posted by:
John |
January 23, 2009 at 06:05 AM
January 13, 2009
On expanding balance sheets and inflationary policy
Here's a question I hear a lot (most recently during the Q&A portion of a speech delivered yesterday by my boss, Atlanta Fed president Dennis Lockhart): Has monetary policy become so expansive that the central bank's mandate to maintain price stability has been fundamentally compromised? Is the increase in the scale of the Federal Reserve's balance sheet inherently inflationary?
Jim Hamilton covered much of the territory implied by these questions in a very extensive Econbrowser post not too long ago, but the distinction between money creation and Fed balance sheet expansion continues to be confounded. Here, for example, is a passage from the Wall Street Journal's Real Time Economics coverage of Stanford professor John Taylor's (not exactly glowing) review of recent Federal Reserve action, delivered at this year's annual meeting of the American Economic Association:
"The Fed has launched nearly a dozen new programs in the past year to address the crisis. Its strategy is to target specific markets in distress—from commercial paper to asset backed securities to money market mutual funds and stresses overseas—with programs tailored to their problems. It also has gotten deeply involved in rescues of individual firms like Bear Stearns, American International Group and Citigroup.
"The Fed has funded these programs by pumping reserves into the banking system—essentially creating new money. In the process, its balance sheet has ballooned from less than $900 billion to more than $2 trillion."
The record though, as the article goes on to note, is that not all of that $2 trillion represents an increase in the money supply:
Only the blue portion of the graph above represents "pumping reserves into the banking system"—a fact that was covered pretty well in the aforementioned Econbrowser post—and in an even earlier post at News N Economics. In simple terms, the size of the Fed's balance sheet is not the same thing as the size of the monetary base (the sum of currency in circulation and reserve balances kept by banks with the Federal Reserve).
Of course, John Taylor's point was not that all of the increase in the balance sheet has amounted to pumping in reserves, just that a lot of it has, which is clearly true. But even here there may be less to the potential inflationary impact than meets the eye. In his speech at the London School of Economics earlier today, Chairman Bernanke explained:
"Some observers have expressed the concern that, by expanding its balance sheet, the Federal Reserve is effectively printing money, an action that will ultimately be inflationary. The Fed's lending activities have indeed resulted in a large increase in the excess reserves held by banks. Bank reserves, together with currency, make up the narrowest definition of money, the monetary base; as you would expect, this measure of money has risen significantly as the Fed's balance sheet has expanded. However, banks are choosing to leave the great bulk of their excess reserves idle, in most cases on deposit with the Fed. Consequently, the rates of growth of broader monetary aggregates, such as M1 and M2, have been much lower than that of the monetary base."
Last week Greg Mankiw had a nifty graph (courtesy of Professor Bill Seyfried of Rollins College) of the so-called money multiplier precisely illustrating the point:
The money multiplier measures the amount of money in the hands of the public—the M1 measure in this case, which is composed mainly of cash and demand deposits (i.e., checking and debit accounts)—that are created by a dollar of monetary base. That amount fell considerably when the Fed introduced the payment of interest on bank reserves.
That said, despite the fall in the money multiplier, the M1 measure of money has also expanded fairly noticeably since late summer:
(Note: This chart replaces the original chart in the blog posting on 1/13/09, which had a mislabeled left axis.)
The increase in M2—a slightly broader measure of money that adds to M1 items like savings accounts and time deposits—has been somewhat slower but still on the rise:
(Note: This chart replaces the original chart in the blog posting on 1/13/09, which had a mislabeled left axis.)
From December 2007 through August of last year, M1 and M2 grew by about 1.2 percent and 3.9 percent respectively. Since September—after which the rapid expansion of the Fed's balance sheet began and the Fed began to pay interest on reserves—the corresponding growth rates have been 13.4 percent and 5.9 percent.
Are those growth rates substantial? That is a tricky question—whether a particular growth rate of money is substantial or not can only be determined in relation to the pace of money demand (which has almost certainly accelerated as interest rates have fallen and the taste for safe and liquid assets risen). But I take two lessons from our early experience with the asset-oriented policies emphasized in the Bernanke and Lockhart speeches. First, expansions of the balance sheet need not imply expansions of the money supply. Furthermore, as Chairman Bernanke emphasized, the Fed has the capacity to contract reserves going forward:
"… the Treasury could resume its recent practice of issuing supplementary financing bills and placing the funds with the Federal Reserve; the issuance of these bills effectively drains reserves from the banking system, improving monetary control. Longer-term assets can be financed through repurchase agreements and other methods, which also drain reserves from the system."
The second lesson, clear in the M1 and M2 charts above, is that despite the payment of interest on reserves and near-zero federal funds rates, it is still possible to induce increases in the broad money supply through the standard channel of injecting reserves into the banking system.
Whatever direction you think the money supply ought to go, these observations should come as comforting news.
By David Altig, senior vice president and research director at the Atlanta Fed
January 13, 2009 in Federal Reserve and Monetary Policy, Inflation | Permalink
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Several points for emphasis:
First, most of the increase in the size of the Fed’s balance sheet reflects an increase in the size of the monetary base. The primary exception has been the program of government deposits held at the Fed, which has been confirmed to be temporary, notwithstanding the option of reintroducing it at a later date.
Second, increases in the monetary base coincide with at least first order increases in broad money supply, although some of this money might be used to pay down bank credit immediately, thereby eliminating the broad money form just created. More generally, macro “deleveraging” has resulted in slower overall net growth of credit and money than would normally be the case, given such a provision of excess reserves. The collapsing “money multiplier” reflects a reduction in the usual leverage associated with excess reserve supply, because monetary policy is working uphill in an attempt to offset these forces of contraction. It is the effect of policy on the counterfactual that should be judged.
Posted by:
JKH |
January 14, 2009 at 07:54 AM
A more prosaic point. I think that the money stock numbers on the graphs should be trillions not billions.
Posted by:
RebelEconomist |
January 14, 2009 at 11:37 AM
David,
Why should we care about the direction of the M1 multiplier? Isn't the absolute level more important?
Say the Fed injects $1tr in reserves at a multiplier of 1.0, or injects $3tr in reserves at a multiplier of 0.5. Which is potentially more inflationary? I would argue the latter.
As far as demand for money balances, I'm surprised you didn't mention that GDP is contracting and that M1 growth FAR exceeds nominal GDP growth. Some might suggest this is inflationary. It is up to Bernanke and others (including your boss) to explain why its not. Further, the behavior of M1 and M2 differs markedly from that of deflationary analogies like Japan and the U.S. during the Great Depression.
Finally, it appears that the Fed is being less than honest when it talks about the difficulty of removing reserves. In the last recovery -- from a shallow recession -- the same Fed engaged in "measured pace" hand-holding until commodity prices began to go haywire. Why should one expect this next recovery to be any different when we will be: a) coming out of a deeper contraction; and b) coming out with much faster growth in broad money measures?
Posted by:
David Pearson |
January 14, 2009 at 11:50 AM
The discussion of the Fed's "proper" role ignores the fact that the Fed is practicing price controls (on money).
In Greenspans book, The Age of Turbulence, there's a passage on page 297 where Greenspan describes his debate with Li Peng and Greenspan told Li Peng that the US tried price controls (under Nixon) but learned that they don't work and learned not to do them.
Apparently not.
Posted by:
George |
January 14, 2009 at 12:13 PM
Simply put, the fed is leveraging up big time to allow the financial system leveraging down. I am curious: anyone know how much accouting capital the Fed has?
And please don't tell us that it can "easily reserve" these actions: we heard that in 2003-2004, look what that brought us.
Posted by:
marie |
January 14, 2009 at 03:15 PM
One of the best explanations I've ever seen.
On September 11th 2001, the FED expanded its balance sheet and I didn't hear any economist saying that US should care about inflation.
Probably this time the expansion of the balance sheet is staying for enough time so those economist that do not understand monetary policy and financial markets can worry about it.
Thanks David!
Posted by:
El del 0.33% |
January 14, 2009 at 11:10 PM
When Bernanke says "However, banks are choosing to leave the great bulk of their excess reserves idle, in most cases on deposit with the Fed.", surely he recognizes that only the Fed can create or destroy overall reserves in the system. Excess reserves are thus a pre-ordained number and banks can only shift around reserves from one to another.
Posted by:
Mojakus |
January 15, 2009 at 09:11 AM
Eh David: Care to address those comments above? It seems that your observations did not come as comforting a news as you expected .
Posted by:
JAL |
January 28, 2009 at 04:13 PM
Great idea, but will this work over the long run?
Posted by:
Roulette_Albert |
July 13, 2009 at 01:47 PM


On the former G.6 release, all debits cleared thru demand deposits, with the exception of Mutual Savings BAnks (an obvious error).
I.e., real estate, financial transactions, etc. all cleared thru DDs. Thus if you take the 2 rates-of-change in bank debits, you can measure all economic activity (including bubbles). Contrary to all other economic theory, the methodology has been infallable.